Look. If I understand your argument, it is that dual citizens at birth are not eligible to be President. Right?
Yes, or no.
So according to your theory, if another country made a person who was born a US citizen ALSO born THEIR citizen, then that person is ineligible to be President of the United States. Right?
Yes or no.
These are simple yes or no questions.
Why can I not get a straight, yes or no answer from these birthers? It’s like I’m asking them to derive Einstein’s equation.
First I find it interesting that you and Rodgers picked up the same diversionary type squirrel “pretend” argument..
**Uhh, lets pretend that some other country decides to usurp the citizenship of our country by suddenly declaring all US citizens to now be the citizens of country X. Then lets ask if any of those “former” US citizens can be qualified under the Constitution because they are no longer US citizens by virtue of country X laying claim to them**
Is this the question that you are asking? And are you seriously trying to participate in this discussion by making up some kooky scenario like this and presenting it as a SERIOUS question?
Or are you trying to cover for the fact that you can produce NO official *LAW* recognizing dual citizenship as a legitimately legal US class of citizenship? It is not in the history of this country, not now not ever. Because dual citizenship, specifically referencing Presidential eligibility under the Constitution is what this discussion is about. A person born a dual citizen (specifically for the issue of our modern times, being born after the Constitution was signed) is not eligible because such a class of citizenship did not exist in 1787 per US law or English common law.