Here is one.
Amendment XIII
Section 1. Neither slavery nor involuntary servitude, except as a punishment for crime whereof the party shall have been duly convicted, shall exist within the United States, or any place subject to their jurisdiction.
The part that says "except as a punishment for crime whereof the party shall have been duly convicted" means that a convicted criminal can be judicially enslaved (made a slave).
If a convicted criminal can have all rights removed, by being reduced to the status of property, that criminal can have any and all other rights selectively removed.
Guess you're right. If a person can be convicted of a crime, they become the slave of the state.
Amazing how widespread that has become.
On second thought... if someone's 2nd Amendment rights can be taken away upon conviction of a crime, why can't their 8th Amendment rights be similarly removed? Yet if the 8th Amendment rights can be removed upon conviction of a crime, then the entire amendment is meaningless!
I do believe that phrase applies to involuntary servitude, not to slavery. Almost the same thing, but an involuntary servant is not property, a slave is.