Posted on 05/29/2010 5:56:46 AM PDT by mattstat
Euclid gave us a gloriously simple proof that there are an infinite number of primes. A prime number, of course, is a positive number that can be evenly divided only by itself or one.
Here’s Euclid’s proof. Don’t worry if you can’t follow along; it’s only important that you understand that the statement, “There are an infinite number of primes” is true given the information provided in the proof.
Assume there are only a finite number of primes; order them from smallest to largest. Multiply them all together and then add to that product one. For ease, call that product-plus-one, P.
P is clearly larger than the largest prime we know of, because P is the product of the largest prime and all the primes smaller than it. But also, if we take all the primes we know and divide any of them into P, we will have a remainder of one.
That means that the prime that divides evenly into P must be larger than the prime we thought was the largest. And since you can keep doing this procedure each time you discover a new “largest” prime, the number of primes must be infinite.
Euclid’s is not the only proof that the number of primes are infinite, but it’s the simplest among all the proofs I know of.
But suppose you find another proof easier to comprehend than Euclid’s; perhaps Dirichlet’s demonstration. And let’s also imagine that your cousin has discovered an entirely new proof.
One day, the three of us meet....
(Excerpt) Read more at wmbriggs.com ...
You know, I was talking with the neighbor about this just the other day over a couple cold Coronas.
Of course! Duh everybody knows this! ;[
bump
I’ll read this after I see SATC2.
Since time is finite for a person and a thought takes a finite amount of time thus a person can only have a finite number of thoughts. The number of people that have lived is also finite. So the number of thoughts mankind has thought is finite. Give the finite nature of our existence one must ask the question do I really have time to think about this? If one chooses to think about such a thought then they must decide how long. So in conclusion.
Yes they are different. Now I must repair my sprinkler system.
Not true. After the 1000th decimal place all subsequent numbers are divisible by 2 or 3. Prove me wrong.
Actually, proving that statement false is easy, since we only have to find one counter example, a feat that would only take moments on a computer.
I had to have an epistemology when I had our first child.
a prefix occurring in loanwords from Greek, where it meant “two,” “twice,” “double” (diphthong); on this model, freely used in the formation of compound words (dicotyledon; dipolar) and in chemical terms (diatomic; disulfide).
visible
a : capable of being seen
b : situated in the region of the electromagnetic spectrum perceptible to human vision —used of radiation having a wavelength between about 400 nanometers and 700 nanometers
Are you having problems with double vision?
Ever hear of prime numbers?
For example, 1009 is a prime number - only divisible by itself and 1.
Etcetera.
Male epistemology doesn’t exist without female epistemology to declare it.
Otherwise, it’s just epistemology.
And ultimately, the validity of any epistemology is in it’s repeatable predictive ability.
Sexualization creates an arbitrary, limiting conflict.
Without sexualization, parallel, valid epistemologies can be studied to find a more profound epistemology that contains both.
lol.....
I don’t know, let me go check.
Pi is not divisible by 2 or 3.
Some di- prefixes are of Greek origin, others of Latin origin...and sometimes an initial di- is not a prefix (divan, divot).
Etymologies are your friend. Where as entomology can drive you buggy.
Thats what I’m sayin’!
“Further, she insists that her way of thinking allows her to understand her evidence in ways that you, being male, cannot. “
The sooner a male understands this, the better off he is.
: )
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