IOW, group A has always been considered NBC. Some have questioned group B's right to that status, which is why we need a Court ruling on whether those doubts are correct.
At the time of the Founding, it is reasonably clear that a child born on American soil to an American citizen father and a mother of foreign birth but not naturalized would have been considered NBC, but not if the parents' status were reversed.
Such sex-based distinctions have been largely or completely eliminated in our society. Do such changes mean the definition of NBC also changes?
By his own admission, his citizenship status is governed by the 1948 British nationality act - soetoro/obama was born a Brit! How can a Brit be a natural born citizen of USA?
‘When Barack Obama Jr. was born on Aug. 4,1961, in Honolulu, Kenya was a British colony, still part of the United Kingdoms dwindling empire. As a Kenyan native, Barack Obama Sr. was a British subject whose citizenship status was governed by The British Nationality Act of 1948. That same act governed the status of Obama Sr.s children.”
Sex-based distinctions might have been largely or completely eliminated in our society, but such changes can’t change the law that was at work at time of obama’s birth!
If the requirements for President clearly said the President must be a man, would you pretend that it didn't, or simply bemoan the fact that it isn't up to the current standards of political correctness?
Whether the Standards of Article II meet "modern" ideas of fairness is completely irrelevant to the fact that it means today what it meant in 1787, up until it is changed by Amendment.