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1 posted on 01/25/2013 10:07:37 AM PST by Academiadotorg
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To: Academiadotorg

ignore these people. eventually some mafioso is going to get po’d and disappear some of them. i don’t want to be near any of them when that happens.


2 posted on 01/25/2013 10:18:43 AM PST by muawiyah
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To: Academiadotorg

Revisionist historians never go out of business.


3 posted on 01/25/2013 10:24:09 AM PST by Vaduz
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To: Academiadotorg

What about when the people who crossed the Bering Land bridge met up with people in North America who came here via the north atlantic route?

Or when the many instances of one group/tribe/country running roughshot over another for say like the last 10,000 years.....

Boo Frickin’ Hoo...


4 posted on 01/25/2013 10:25:53 AM PST by GraceG
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To: Academiadotorg

I invite them all to turn over their homes, jobs, and possessions to “indigenous peoples” and return to the countries of their ancestors. It’s easy to criticize what happened 500 years ago but hold yourself as entitled.


7 posted on 01/25/2013 10:46:28 AM PST by informavoracious (God help us.)
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To: Academiadotorg; All
Columbus Come Lately not only did not ‘discover’ America - He knew before hand that North and South America were there - had maps on it. (He was married into the family that included the famous cartographer family, the Zeno brothers, and their famous maps.)

Columbus planned on sailing BETWEEN the two continents to reach The Indies on the backside. He didn't know CENTRAL America was in between.

Not only were the Vikings in Greenland 500 years before Columbus sailed, but they explored the eastern shores of North America, had a winter camp on the south shore of the Cape Cod and tried to set up a colony up the Hudson River. A wicked cold winter there changed their minds.

Then, in 1398, a hundred years before Columbus sailed, Prince Henry Sinclair of Scotland sailed to Nova Scotia (he had a fleet of ships larger than the King of Scotland) with the Zeno brothers of Genoa - map makers...remember that name?

There's also evidence that Sinclair explored the eastern seaboard.

It's also documented history that Columbus was brought back to Spain in chains, from his 3rd voyage to the New World, per orders of the Queen because of his genocide of the Natives - and his plans to establish HIMSELF, over the Queen, as the ruler in the new land.

There's a plethora of history on all of this - and Columbus himself never claimed to have discovered a whole new world.

the myth still taught in schools is swallowed hook, line and anchor by most, who never question what's they’re told in school...much like the still prevailing notion that the Pilgrims dressed in black and white and didn't drink ‘spirits’ or sing and dance. ALL untrue. They clumped them in with the Puritans of Boston Bay Colony - arch enemies and up-tight control freaks. The truth has been available for decades, but the myth continues. and the swallowing continues.

Good little sheep.

(I was going to post links but you all have access to the net. Too lazy to do your own research? Open wide...

9 posted on 01/25/2013 11:15:21 AM PST by maine-iac7 (Christian is as Christian does - by their fruits)
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To: Academiadotorg

The Spanish arriving in the new world was the equivalent of the Allies liberating the nazi death camps. The eradication of the Aztec death cults was something that should be celebrated.
As someone else said, everyone around them lived under some form of slavery and routine mass murder at their hands.


10 posted on 01/25/2013 11:20:49 AM PST by DesertRhino (I was standing with a rifle, waiting for soviet paratroopers, but communists just ran for office.)
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To: Academiadotorg

note to idiot academics - “native” Mexicans are not “native” to the lands north of the Rio Grande;

they are part of the Spanish colonial society that followed Spain’s conquests in the Americas, as well as the caudillo society down in Mexico that followed the local (Mexican born Spaniards) revolt and independence from Spain.

Until the “Spanish” and the later evolving “Hispanic” period of Mexico, the natives of Mexico found in the Aztec empire, dominated by the Mixtec’s, never had their own towns, villages, cities or settlements much more than 200 miles north of Mexico city.

The actual history of North America makes “Mexicans” no more “native” to the lands north of the Rio Grand than any other people who either were themselves, or who were brought to the area by, European settlers.

Trade routes, trade alliances, and language roots in common, across western North America, going back 1,000s of years, do not make the Aztecs and Mixtecs themselves, any more “native” to the areas north of the Rio Grande than were the celtic speakers of Ireland “native” to the lands of other celtic speakers in Europe.

The U.S. got rid of one form of European colonialism when it defeated Britain. Accepting the myth that “hispanic speaker” equals “native” American is nothing other than accepting an additional colonialism from a former colony of Spain as the equivalent of “native” to the territory of the United States. It’s not.


14 posted on 01/25/2013 1:06:24 PM PST by Wuli
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To: Academiadotorg

Except that even the liberal crowd says that “native peoples” didn’t just spring from the earth where they lived. They weren’t really “native”. And, OBTW, they killed each other off and enslaved each other whenever possible.


15 posted on 01/25/2013 1:11:38 PM PST by Pecos (If more sane people carried guns, fewer crazies would get off a second shot.)
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To: Academiadotorg

22 posted on 01/25/2013 11:01:45 PM PST by JoeProBono (A closed mouth gathers no feet - Mater tua caligas exercitus gerit ;-{)
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