And yet, pre-NAZIs, they became a much larger percentage of the population in Europe than they did in the Middle East. Curious for the more persecuted population to fair better, don't you think?
The Church did not run the death camps, and in fact was readily persecuted by the NAZIs. But, if we are talking Europe vs. the Muslim World, that is a moot point with regard to 1936-1945.
The initial imigration to Israel included almost 100% of the remaining Jews from all of North Africa, Arabia, and Persia. Not surprising then that it was a large percentage. But that rather bolsters my point. Most Jews still lived in the West, but stayed where they were. While those in Muslim lands fled or were driven in mass to Israel.
My original post was strictly with reference to medieval and early modern periods. During this period, there are multiple references of Jews fleeing from Christian lands to Muslim lands, but AFAIK no instances of the reverse.
When people flee in one direction only, as from East to West Germany, or from Cuba to the USA, there’s generally a reason.
When the Spanish Jews were expelled and fled to the Ottoman Empire, the Sultan said, “ “Ye call Ferdinand a wise king he who makes his land poor and ours rich!”
There are more Jews in Israel, than in the Disaspora, actually.
It’s about 50% Ashkenazim (European) 50% mizrahim/sephardic (Spain, et al/middle east)