Sorry but it appears etymological errors here. “Middle class” is a term of English society, not American, in origin. Are you telling me Webster`s dictionary is wrong? Who do you think one is - Webster?? Is one a revisionist etymologist? 1887 Webster`s dictionary defines “middle class” as an English social stratification separating the lords and nobility from the working class.
There was no “American middle class” existing in from 1787 to 1887 according to Webster`s dictionary because there is not and was not any nobility allowed in the U.S.
So where did the pseudo-term “American middle class” originate?
The so-called term “American middle class “ is an attempt by govt and leftist sociologists to define “classes’ of people by income stratification, whereas the true definition of the term “middle class” is based upon BIRTH [English society] and into what class the people were BORN, i.e,., nobility, bankers, merchants ‘[English middle class] or working people.
If this were true, then Obummer would by rules if grammar, logic and semantics, also have to define the “high classes [upper class]” and the “[low] lower classes”. You can`t have the goose without the gander. Obummer and pinko sociologists want to have “American middle class” sans “American high class” or “American upper class” and
“American lower class”- They want to have their cake and eat it too. You just cannot have middle class defined without upper and lower classes defined also.
Some of us have been down on our luck at some point in our lives, and we all know people who are down on their luck or poor but never in my life would I call them “lower class”.
Yet Obummer and leftist sociologoists open the door to this income class labeling and have to define the “American high class” and “the American lower class” since they insist on defining the middle class by wanting to have their cake and eat it too. You just can`t have a “middle class” without a “high class” and a
“lower class” or you are talking nonsense and are making double talk propaganda.
I dare Obummer to call his food stamp and welfare recipient followers and the unemployed as “lower class”. HAHA.
But England did have a high, middle and lower class in 1887 as defined by Webster.
“middle class”=
“In England, people who have an intermediate position between the nobility and or leisured class and the working class. It includes professional men, bankers,
merchants, and small landed proprietors.”
Webster`s Dictionary, p.532.
Just look at the problems the royal family has in England with members of their family marrying “commoners”
- HAHA
I can back up my hypotheses any day using the undisputed authority of Webster on the true meanings of words and terms and their ORIGINS to show the usurped origins of “American middle class” of leftist sociologists and their Obummer govt lackies any day. Webster is a better authority than any sociologist on meanings of words and terms, as I have stated previously. Go argue with Webster. I am only quoting the written authorized source my parents, grandparents and myself learned and used in school, not some fanciful unicorn term made up to fit a non-nobilty based country..
I never heard the term “American middle class” in everyday language spoken here or in any university I attended, never until the 90`s when I started hearing on TV “middle class” from Democrats. I said to myself, “What the hell is the American middle class?”.
Very interesting! Thx for the post.
What you are doing is imagining there to be some sort of abrupt ending of England's influence and the beginning of America's influence on the English language ~ which we share with them.
We still have people who grovel at the sight of the Queen of England.
BTW, as best we try the English still have some influence on the shared tongue ~ probably always will have.
Do you speak English as your second, third or fourth language?