No I have not. The existance of universal moral laws and values which have existed in every culture known to man is objective non emperical evidence of their existance. Logic is not empirical and cannont be discerned by the senses but exists indepedant of perception. Both are objective non empirical realilties. Both remain true whether you believe in them or not.
No I have not.
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I’m sorry, but you have.
You cannot presume, as you have, that those universal moral laws are transcendant, and not the result of trial and error in groups of humans living together.
Likewise, logic. The notion that A=A is an empirical observation that has been made into a ‘law’.
And before y’all join together to kick my a$$, I was philosophy major in college, having graduated 30 some years ago. I am not a strict materialist by any stretch, but folks do themselves no favors by being simply misinformed.