the fact that this guy even asks the question illustrates his moral vapidity.
Which guy? The bishops who make the moral equivalence between the two, or this author pointing out their moral vapidity for doing so?
(You'll note the author is criticizing the moral vapidity of certain bishops and is obviously in agreement with you.)
posted on 12/18/2003 11:29:00 AM PST
the bishops, obviously.
posted on 12/18/2003 11:35:08 AM PST
(keep your mind open and somebody will fill it with something for you))
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