That would be a horrible idea. And if it did ever come to be, what would constitute property ownership? If you have a mortgage on your home, the bank owns it technically. Would only those who own their home free and clear be allowed to vote?
In NC and some other states you have to pay property tax on automobiles. If I am paying property taxes on my car, then I clearly own property. But what if there is a loan on it?
And why should a person who prefers to rent an apartment be denied the ability to vote?
What about a situation my wife and I were in, and many many Americans find themselves in. Renting an apartment after the sale of a home while the construction on the new home is being finished? The day before closing on the sale I could vote, but today I can't?
2. The property-owner requirement would not be new -- it was used in the past, here and in England.