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To: Cronos
Indians (meaning residents of the Indian subcontinent) speak Dravidian languages as well as Indo-European languages and Sino-Tibetan languages.

They are not properly listed as being "all same thing" with the Germans.

Tje master/slave relationship of the Celts to the Germans should never be overlooked either.

72 posted on 11/27/2008 7:22:40 PM PST by muawiyah
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To: muawiyah
True enough -- however 70% of India is Indo-European, 20 to 25 % Dravidian (in the extreme south), 3 to 5 % Sino-Tibetan (north-east) and the remaineder Australoud (Bhils, Gonds, etc. other tribals).

Indo-Europeans as a group are inter-related. Granted that the split between Eastern Indo-Europeans (Indo-Iranis and Tocharians) and Western Indo-Europeans (Latino-Celtic-Slavic-Germanic-Armenians) may have taken place by 1000 to 800 BC.

Master/Slave relationship of the Celts to the GErmans? I've not heard that before -- where did you get that? I've read about the Germanics and Slavics being underlings to the Huns, Avars and Bulgars, but not that.
73 posted on 11/27/2008 10:29:57 PM PST by Cronos ("Islam isn't in America to be equal to any other faith, but to become dominant" - Omar Ahmed, CAIR)
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