We can all agree that slavery is immoral. But does our society's rejection of slavery stem from the classic liberalism on which our nation was founded, or is there a Bibilical basis for it?

To the best of my knowledge, Muslim societies still tolerate slavery, and their Koran and religious leaders seem to have no objections to it.

Is our objection to slavery based on the Declaration of Independence, or on our religious heritage?

The Koran actively advocates enslaving non-believers. I don't recall reading anywhere in the Bible where enslavement and slavery are advocated. It is true that slavery is accepted in the Bible, but I can't think of anything in it that promotes it.

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There is something in there about doing unto others as you would have them do unto you.

"Do unto others as you would have done to you." Unless you want to be a slave...

The Bible does not directly condemn slavery. But the Old Testament establishes principles of just treatment of slaves. And the New Testament argues that all men, whether Jew or Greek, slave or free, are equal in the sight of God.

So you can make the argument that Christian principles of social justice and spiritual equality, which draw on earlier Jewish principles, make slavery undesirable and ultimately made slavery vanish.

It wasn't just Americans who outlawed slavery. The Pope pronounced against it early. The British outlawed it. Most of Europe followed. But, even earlier, slavery gradually disappeared in Christian Europe and only reappeared when European explorers encountered it among the Arabs and Africans and started a new era of slavery out of pure greed.

The modern west is the only place where slavery has been abolished. In all other places and times it was taken for granted.

It doesn't condemn slavery. It does condemn slave traders

1 Timothy 1 9We also know that law[1] is made not for the righteous but for lawbreakers and rebels, the ungodly and sinful, the unholy and irreligious; for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers, 10for adulterers and perverts, for slave traders and liars and perjurers--and for whatever else is contrary to the sound doctrine 11that conforms to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, which he entrusted to me.

On this site, the answer is yes, the Bible condemns slavery.

"Then, thousands of years before Abraham Lincoln ever muttered the Emancipation Proclamation, Mosaic Law takes another radical step and bans involuntary servitude altogether in Exodus 21:16: "He who kidnaps a man, whether he sells him or he is found in his possession, shall surely be put to death." Deuteronomy 24:7 states: “If a man is caught kidnapping any of his countrymen of the sons of Israel, and he deals with him violently, or sells him, then that thief shall die; so you shall purge the evil from among you.” Kidnapping and enforced slavery are forbidden and punishable by death. This was true for any man (Ex. 21:16), as well as for the Israelites (Deut. 24:7)."

http://www.joshclaybourn.com/blog/archives/001448.html

Timothy 1:10 - For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;

Your question has had a million answers over the years. Many people have attempted to use the Bible to fortify positions on both sides of the slavery issue. There is no direct "Slavery is bad" statement. But, in my opinion, the major themes of the NT are contrary to slavery. It's certainly hard to see how one could attempt to carry out the second greatest commandment "Love you neighbor as yourself" with slaves.

Fundamentally I think it's silly to use such an analogy in an instance where one is not needed. If there is anything a Christian can stand firm on it's that killing a child is contrary to Christian principles.

Actually slavery exists in the bible with no condemnation. it actually says for slaves to honor their masters. With that said, an explanation of a type of slavery that existed back then is in order.

Other than captured peoples who were enslaved by their conquerors there was also those who, more or less, opted for slavery. If their debts got out of hand they could go to a rich man who would pay off their debts and they would be "enslaved" for a period of 7 years at which time they were to be released. If they didn't want to be released they could opt for a continuation of that slavery.

There is also a passage about not being a cruel master.

There is more to it than that, but that is a start.

When discussing this, one also has to draw a distinction between slavery and indentured servitude. They're not the same thing, but the latter will often be misrepresented as the former.

Qwinn

*nod* Exactly... the term for that is indentured servitude. I was typing my post before I saw yours.

Qwinn

Historically speaking it -- or at least the "push" -- stems from our British backround and kinfolk across the sea. Which, in turn, rises out of 18th c. enlightenment, yada...yada...yada.

We can all agree that slavery is immoral.

Question: Just why do we consider slavery immoral? I mean besides "Well, because it is!" What is it about slavery that we find so detestable as to declare it "immoral"?

There is no direct prohibition against slavery in the New Testament that I have ever seen. Jesus command to "Do unto others as you would have them do unto you" ought to persuade Chistians not to own slaves. But there was no command to foribly overthrow the social order of that day - instead the institution was probably intended to wither away as the people converted to Christianity. Check out the letter to Philemon (regarding an escaped slave, in the New Testament) by the apostle Paul.

Before I got to yours, I was thinking of the difference between indentured servitude and slavery along with Post #11. While the former was lawful and the latter condemned, most think the terms are synonymous but aren't.

Question: Just why do we consider slavery immoral? I mean besides "Well, because it is!" What is it about slavery that we find so detestable as to declare it "immoral"?

"We hold these Truths to be self-evident, that all Men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty and the Pursuit of Happiness..."

Francis Wayland, author of "Moral Science" (1840ish) had an interesting take on this:

He said that although slavery was condemned by virtue of rational tenets, like "love thy neighbor" (self-evident thuths), Jesus admonished that hearts should be changed by opening the heart of the adversary by judicious application of love. He further calculates that had the Gospel called for personal freedom to be won by violence or flight, that the Roman Empire's movers and shakers would have been hardened in their intolerance of Christianity such that the 'cult' would surely have been wiped out.

It makes sense to me...it worked; but try explaining that to someone...although the MLK devotees should be able to get a handle on it. Ghandi, and all that.

You've gotten some good replies here, particularly from Cicero in Post #6. Remember, too, that what we experienced in the United States, chattel slavery, was different from most other slavery that has been practiced throughout history. Slavery has been a widespread practice throughout most cultures and periods. The Bible did not forbid it, but did not condone it either. Like Cicero said, the Bible was concerned that the practice was just and slaves did have rights and recourse to some justice. Most of the book of Philemon in the NT is about a slave, Onesimus (sp?). Paul basically says to do well what you are expected to do in whatever circumstances you find yourself. However, if Onesimus's owner freed him, then that would be better. But it was not demanded.

American slavery evolved into something else. It was man owning man with few if any rights. It was an entirely different category of practice, IMHO. I do not believe that this type of slavery can be justified in any way by the Bible.

It wasn't just Americans who outlawed slavery. The Pope pronounced against it early....

By the Pope, you mean, the Roman Catholic Church. And, for better or worse, the Church, particularly in the early years, did not condemn slavery; however, throughout all time it did strongly urge the dying to free their slaves -- either on their deathbed or in their will -- as a finial good deed.