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To: NathanR
Polygamy is practiced in Moslem nations today, Mormans, and other backward cultures. It used to be practiced by the Hebrews, and most old cultures a few thousand years ago. My point is; the reason monagomy became the trend for change in most cultures is the drive for equality. Do the math, there are 50% men/women ratio on this planet, so if rich guys like King Solomon would have thousand wifes, then 999 guys will go without wives, simply do it with the sheep? heh! Egaliterian, religions, or women rights; whatever was the cause of that change from polygamy to monogomy, may it is time to rethink of changing back.
48 posted on 04/23/2004 1:05:49 PM PDT by philosofy123
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To: philosofy123
My bad. I forgot that before 1500 there were many Moslem's in Spain, which is in the West.

However, you still haven't made the argument that monogamy and communism are linked. My argument is, that monogamy and Christianity are linked. Christians take mistresses and practice serial monogamy, they don't take concubines and practice polygamy. (except, at one time, Mormons.)
49 posted on 04/23/2004 1:22:22 PM PDT by NathanR (California Si! Aztlan NO!)
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To: philosofy123
Read some history dude. Monogamy has been the rule in Christian nations since late ancient times... (ca. 400 AD), nothing to do with an amorphous "drive for equality" rather mainly due to the influence of the Church. While I am not Catholic, here's an excellent description of polygamy and monogamy from the Catholic Encyclopedia ( http://www.newadvent.org )--a very scholarly, balanced and well researched source.

"While monogamy was the prevailing form of the family before Christ, it was limited in various degrees among many peoples by the practice of polygamy. This practice was on the whole more common among the Semitic races than among the Aryans. It was more frequent among the Jews, the Egyptians, and the Medes, than among the people of India, the Greeks, or the Romans. It existed to a greater extent among the uncivilized races, although some of these were free from it. Moreover, even those nations which practised polygamy, whether civilized or uncivilized, usually restricted it to a small minority of the population, as the kings, the chiefs, the nobles, and the rich. Polyandry was likewise practised, but with considerably less frequency. According to Westermarck, monogamy was by far the most common form of marriage "among the ancient peoples of whom we have any direct knowledge" (op. cit., p. 459). On the other hand, divorce was in vogue among practically all peoples, and to a much greater extent than polygamy."
54 posted on 04/24/2004 10:42:28 AM PDT by AnalogReigns
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