Nope. See my post 24 on this thread. The first time the 14th amendment was used that way was when the left-wing activists in the second half of the 20th century created the fiction that the 14th amendment 'incorporated' selected parts of the bill of rights into the 14th amendment. Thus, the left reasoned, the US Supreme Court could control the states.
The 14th amendment itself applies quite obviously only to slaves and their descendants.
The judicial activism consisted SOLELY of inventing the notion that incorporation was a cafeteria-menu selection of preference, rather than an across-the-board requirement of constitutional law as guided by original intent.