Posted on 12/07/2005 2:36:38 PM PST by Charles Henrickson
Glad you recognize that the language usage of today in our society is not the same as the Jewish society of 1700+ years ago. It is very important that in English there is a very great difference between in or on the scripture uses versus after which appears to be your (mis)understanding of the timeframe. Jesus was buried day one on Friday before sabbath (dusk), sabbath (day two) and rose on Sunday (day 3). It is important to note that Jesus said he would rise again on the third day. Again see these versus:
Mt 16:21, 17:23, 20:19, 27:64 (understood by the Jewish leadership); Lk 9:22, 13:32, 18:33 (again, understood by the Jewish leadership), 24:7, 24:46
Thus Jesus' use of the term within the linguistic and cultural understanding of His day (MT 27:64 and Lk 18:33), His reminder to His followers and the day of the resurrection (Sunday) are in agreement.
Please read things a little more closely and you will avoid such embarrassing statements. Once again the word used here is epiphosko. Its definition is to grow light, dawn. There is no way this can be construed as being the equivalent of dusk or evening which is the opposite. It is a perversion of English and common sense to insist otherwise. Even in the Hebrew way of looking at things which mark the start of the day at sunset. Had they meant that time of day the word Opsios would have been used.
It isn't. He was crucified, died, and was buried on Friday. Saturday was the day of rest in the tomb. He rose early on Sunday--the third day, counting inclusively.
If Jesus is not God, and the passages you cited mean that, then the Trinity is a false doctrine, isn't it?
Query: in the Greek version of Exodus, when God says his name, how is that translated into the Greek?
Does Jesus not use the same term when he says "Before Abraham was, I AM"? Grammatically, one would expect "Before Abraham was, I was."
Of course, our English language bibles make a great deal of theatre capitalizing "I AM" in both Exodus and John, but what about the Greek.
And was Jesus speaking Greek?
Or was he speaking Aramaic at the time?
And when he said "I AM", did he pronounce the regular Aramaic "I am", or did he pronounce the Hebrew name of God, the Great I Am?
No way to know from the Greek text, since this is a distinction that cannot be made.
But from the content of the story we see that at that moment his hearers were astonished and infuriated and sought to stone him. What, precisely, is blasphemous about saying "Before Abraham was, I was"? or "Before Abraham was, I am?", mangling syntax?
Or was it that Jesus used the Great I Am, the word only pronounced by the High Priest on the High Holy Day, in the Holy of Holies?
Anyway, if Jesus wasn't really God, the Trinity falls apart.
The tension between John's Gospel and the synoptics on this point is perfectly awful.
Not necessarily. Matthew 2:16 states, "from two years old and under." Several possible variables: 1) how age is counted in a particular culture--is a newborn "one" or "zero"? 2); Herod could have been covering his bases and adding a little cushion, just to be sure; 3) how much time elapsed between the magi's initial appearance in Jerusalem and Herod's realization they weren't coming back; 4) "and under" includes all the younger ones.
Doesn't give a city either as I recall.
It does, several times. Bethlehem.
There's a lot of places to poke holes in all of these "theories". For one, Herod's death obviously happened after the Nativity, and that could've been anywhere from 4BC to 1AD, depending on whose records you believe. And that's if there's a rational explanation of the Star to begin with...
As I said, the symbolism of the players in the celestial events and the significance of their names was quite interesting.
We settled this back in the 4th and 5th centuries.
Are you an Arian perchance? Or the contemporary counterpart, a Mormon?
Almost certainly it does. It would be a very strange reading indeed of Matthew 2:1-11 to have several mentions of Bethlehem, including the magi receiving information to go to Bethlehem, and then have them go to some other unnamed place that is not Bethlehem.
He did grow up in Nazareth, so at some point the family went back to there.
Yes, but not until AFTER they fled Judea (where Bethlehem was), sojourned in Egypt for a while, and THEN returned, not to Judea, but to Galilee, to the city of Nazareth. See Matthew 2:22-23.
If Christ is not both true God and true man, we have no Savior and we are still lost in our sins.
Wake up. Your salvation is at stake.
Or, we were never lost in the first place and it's all been a millennia-long money-making scam.
Good luck with that.
That's sad. I hope some day you come to the end of yourself. Jesus will be waiting to take you in.
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