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50 USC 1802 Permits Warrantless Surveillance
United States Code ^ | 12/19/2005 | Self

Posted on 12/19/2005 4:25:09 AM PST by angkor

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To: angkor
Throughout the "illegal wiretaps" debacle of the last several days we have not heard a single citation of the actual law that is alleged to have been violated.

The Fourth Amendment.
21 posted on 12/19/2005 4:54:09 AM PST by BikerNYC (Modernman should not have been banned.)
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To: angkor
Is it fair to assume by "United States person", it is meant United States citizen? I'm not up to speed on all of this, so I don't know exactly who they were listening to, or if that has even been made public.

At any rate, I assumed and expected this was being done anyway. I have no problem with it.

22 posted on 12/19/2005 4:54:51 AM PST by jennyjenny
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To: dep
I think I agree with you.

If this had cited (4) under 1801

(4) a group engaged in international terrorism or activities in preparation therefor;

Then I think this would apply.

23 posted on 12/19/2005 4:55:01 AM PST by OXENinFLA
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To: xlib
"...the acquisition of the contents of communications transmitted by means of communications used exclusively between or among foreign powers,..."

All you needed to do was look at 50 USC 1801 (a)(1), which is specifically referenced above:

"As used in this subchapter: (a) “Foreign power” means.... ( 4) a group engaged in international terrorism or activities in preparation therefor;"

24 posted on 12/19/2005 4:56:13 AM PST by angkor
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To: angkor
Liberals needed a diversion from 'Able Danger', thus they needed to suck all the oxygen out of the public interest in why the Clintons ignored Atta and crew. So accuse the present administration of what they did and off to the races we go.
25 posted on 12/19/2005 4:56:19 AM PST by Just mythoughts
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To: cwiz24

See #16.

You're right that "United States person" and "substantial likelihood" are issues, but not as simple as they seem at first glance.


26 posted on 12/19/2005 4:59:00 AM PST by angkor
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To: jennyjenny
Is it fair to assume by "United States person", it is meant United States citizen?

No, a United States person is a citizen or a permanent resident. It is not someone in the US on a tourist, student or diplomatic visa, nor does it cover illegal immigrants.

27 posted on 12/19/2005 4:59:23 AM PST by Alter Kaker ("Whatever tears one sheds, in the end one always blows one's nose." - Heine)
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To: nevergore

So, Al Qaeda is a "domestic Power?"

It's one or the other.


28 posted on 12/19/2005 4:59:55 AM PST by Beckwith (The liberal press has picked sides ... and they have sided with the Islamofascists)
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To: angkor

But 1802 doesn't cite (4), just 1,2,&3, under 1801.


29 posted on 12/19/2005 4:59:55 AM PST by OXENinFLA
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To: jennyjenny
Is it fair to assume by "United States person", it is meant United States citizen?

U.S. citizen or permanent resident only.

30 posted on 12/19/2005 5:00:03 AM PST by angkor
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To: OXENinFLA
If this had cited (4) under 1801

It does cite 1801 (1)(a). Terrorist organizations are foreign powers for the purpose of the statute.

31 posted on 12/19/2005 5:01:35 AM PST by angkor
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To: Beckwith

That's my question....I don't know how the Fed's classed Al-Queda in regards to this provision........


32 posted on 12/19/2005 5:02:06 AM PST by nevergore (“It could be that the purpose of my life is simply to serve as a warning to others.”)
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To: angkor

i heard that, ping


33 posted on 12/19/2005 5:02:11 AM PST by sure_fine (*not one to over kill the thought process*)
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To: nevergore

I think that was one of Rice's points w/ Russert yesterday, that the laws were tailored for foreign intelligence assets and not "stateless" terrorists.


34 posted on 12/19/2005 5:02:53 AM PST by neodad (Rule Number 1: Be Armed)
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To: Beckwith
So, Al Qaeda is a "domestic Power?"

Foreign power under the scope of the statute.

35 posted on 12/19/2005 5:02:56 AM PST by angkor
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To: angkor
No, the law has a "substantial likelihood" test.

Correct, which means that even if the surveillance fails to intercept communications of any US Persons, it can still violate the law, if it was conducted recklessly without regard to status.

So you have a Catch-22: Either the administration failed to confirm immigration status and violated the law, or they did take the time to confirm immigration status, in which case why on earth didn't they get a FISA warrant (which would have been faster anyway)??? I'm thoroughly confused.

36 posted on 12/19/2005 5:04:08 AM PST by Alter Kaker ("Whatever tears one sheds, in the end one always blows one's nose." - Heine)
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To: angkor
It does cite 1801 (1)(a). Terrorist organizations are foreign powers for the purpose of the statute.

No, it cites 1801(a)(1), (2), or (3).

For (4) to be included it would have to be cited in 1802.


(A) the electronic surveillance is solely directed at—

(i) the acquisition of the contents of communications transmitted by means of communications used exclusively between or among foreign powers, as defined in section 1801 (a)(1), (2), or (3) of this title; or

(ii) the acquisition of technical intelligence, other than the spoken communications of individuals, from property or premises under the open and exclusive control of a foreign power, as defined in section 1801 (a)(1), (2), or (3) of this title;

37 posted on 12/19/2005 5:07:13 AM PST by OXENinFLA
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To: angkor
the Attorney General, may authorize electronic surveillance without a court order under this subchapter to acquire foreign intelligence information for periods of up to one year

This is for foreign intelligence only, not US citizens

(A) the electronic surveillance is solely directed at—

(i) the acquisition of the contents of communications transmitted by means of communications used exclusively between or among foreign powers, as defined in section 1801 (a)(1), (2), or (3) of this title; or

More limitations to foreign powers only, not US citizens

(B) there is no substantial likelihood that the surveillance will acquire the contents of any communication to which a United States person is a party; and

Exclusion of US persons.

This does not cover what Bush has permitted.

38 posted on 12/19/2005 5:07:51 AM PST by Bear_Slayer
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To: angkor

An official process isn't necessarily 'due process', although government always claims it is. In this case, citing 'the law' ignores the question of whether the law is Constitutional -- and if it isn't, it's no law at all.


39 posted on 12/19/2005 5:10:26 AM PST by Grut
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To: quefstar

The reason for the urgency is that they ALREADY had it.
If you read many spy novels you will understand that they sift through everything, and then look for special keywords or groups of words. Once they come up with it, they have to decide whether or not they can legally use it.

THEN, they go to the courts. With the volume of emails, cel phone calls, and regular calls, it is a process that makes sence.


40 posted on 12/19/2005 5:11:49 AM PST by Vermont Lt (I am not from Vermont. I lived there for four years and that was enough.)
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