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To: Prophet in the wilderness

Just seems to me that unless the words are spelled nearly the same in the original language too (which they rarely are when the words are not related) that their little theory doesn't hold any water (theology and right thinking aside). In other words, just because the spelling is similar in English doesn't mean that it is in the language that the Bible was written in. And if the spelling in ancient Hebrew isn't similar then how could the alleged mistake have ever been made?


42 posted on 03/02/2007 4:31:21 PM PST by AnOldCowhand (The west is dead. You may lose a sweetheart, but you will never forget her - Charles Russell)
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To: AnOldCowhand

For what it's worth, I've wondered the same thing.


50 posted on 03/03/2007 4:45:51 AM PST by realpatriot (Some spelling errers entionally included!)
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