Just seems to me that unless the words are spelled nearly the same in the original language too (which they rarely are when the words are not related) that their little theory doesn't hold any water (theology and right thinking aside). In other words, just because the spelling is similar in English doesn't mean that it is in the language that the Bible was written in. And if the spelling in ancient Hebrew isn't similar then how could the alleged mistake have ever been made?
For what it's worth, I've wondered the same thing.