Posted on 04/12/2007 8:41:31 PM PDT by FairOpinion
The governor of Maryland did Tuesday what the governor of California should have done last fall: sign a bill making his state the first to begin junking the electoral college.
At least, chuck the electoral college as it has evolved. Circumvent the relic, render it moot and elect America's president by popular vote.
The bill makes Maryland the first state to sign an interstate compact that obligates each signatory to cast all its electoral votes for the presidential candidate who wins the national popular vote. The compact won't go into effect unless it's signed by enough states to comprise a majority of the electoral college vote.
Gov. Arnold Schwarzenegger vetoed an identical bill after studying the measure for, it seemed, about three seconds. "It disregards the will of a majority of Californians," he said in his veto message, pointing out that the state's electoral votes could be awarded to a candidate most Californians didn't favor.
(Excerpt) Read more at latimes.com ...
How about if they base the appointment of their electors on the popular vote of another state?
It is unclear if this is the case in MD, but if that were the case, this would probably end up in court.
It most certainly is an agreement between States. Read the text of the bill. It specifically calls it such.
Not unclear at all. The bill says that if the people of Maryland vote for a slate of electors sworn to Candidate A, but the popular vote of the other states is for Candidate B. then B will get the electors. Thus, Maryland's electors may easily be decided by the voters of another State. Would that end up in court? You betcha. Would it do so before causing a Constitutional crisis that makes Florida 2000 look minuscule? Not likely, since there has to be an after the fact suit by a person with legal standing.
According to the bill, the 270 EV trigger has to be met in June (July? I can't remember exactly) before the election. Once triggered, a State cannot withdraw until after the next effected election.
ok.
Interesting.
How to end the Republic.
Interesting, thanks for the information, but there is a serious problem with the alleged deadline in the law. The legislature’s powers are defined in its constitution and only an amendment to the constitution can change the defined powers of the legislature or restrict its powers. (Imagine, for example, the outrage if Congress passed a law changing the way that we vote for our representatives in the House, surely it would be held unconstitutional). In other words this law is unconstitutional under its state constitution because the law places a limitation on the power of the legislature without amendment to its state constitution. Thus it is conceivable that a legislature could ignore this laws provisions and change its electoral law even after the deadline.
The relevant sections re: your question:
“THIS ARTICLE SHALL GOVERN THE APPOINTMENT OF PRESIDENTIAL
ELECTORS IN EACH MEMBER STATE IN ANY YEAR IN WHICH THIS AGREEMENT IS, ON JULY 20, IN EFFECT IN STATES CUMULATIVELY POSSESSING A MAJORITY OF THE ELECTORAL VOTES.
ARTICLE IV. OTHER PROVISIONS.
THIS AGREEMENT SHALL TAKE EFFECT WHEN STATES CUMULATIVELY POSSESSING A MAJORITY OF THE ELECTORAL VOTES HAVE ENACTED THIS AGREEMENT IN SUBSTANTIALLY THE SAME FORM AND THE ENACTMENTS BY
SUCH STATES HAVE TAKEN EFFECT IN EACH STATE.
ANY MEMBER STATE MAY WITHDRAW FROM THIS AGREEMENT, EXCEPT
THAT A WITHDRAWAL OCCURRING SIX MONTHS OR LESS BEFORE THE END OF A PRESIDENTS TERM SHALL NOT BECOME EFFECTIVE UNTIL A PRESIDENT OR
VICE PRESIDENT SHALL HAVE BEEN QUALIFIED TO SERVE THE NEXT TERM.”
I take what I said back. That said, this situation is interesting. I don't think 1 state has an ability to force another legislature to act in a certain fashion.
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