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Foreclosures Hit a Snag for Lenders
The New York TImes ^ | November 15, 2007 | Gretchen Morgenson

Posted on 11/15/2007 7:10:13 PM PST by givemELL

Judge Christopher A. Boyko of Federal District Court in Cleveland dismissed 14 foreclosure cases brought on behalf of mortgage investors, ruling that they had failed to prove that they owned the properties they were trying to seize.

(Excerpt) Read more at nytimes.com ...


TOPICS: Business/Economy
KEYWORDS: foreclosures; lenders
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This leaves mortgage lenders and their investors, banks up the creek...and is a godsend to mortgage holders of subprime and ALT-A mortgages in the future (they peak for default in 2011 as the subprime stuff is winding down. The losses will be massive if this ruling holds up..expect a Supreme Court challenge. Here are two especially informative news sites on the national housing and commercial, bank and mortgage lender and even hedge fund problems. One hundred and eighty six mortgage lenders have folded this year, and 22 hedge funds have folded. To follow this stuff daily, here are three sites of great utility: www.ml-implode.com www.hf-implode.com www.nychousingbubble.blogspot.com

Happy reading..eom

1 posted on 11/15/2007 7:10:14 PM PST by givemELL
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To: givemELL
So they got the lesson one learns early in life, the job isn’t finish till you complete the paper work. Some people are about to get free home. LOL
2 posted on 11/15/2007 7:17:50 PM PST by org.whodat (What's the difference between a Democrat and a republican????)
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To: givemELL
Proof of standing is a fundamental element of the law. I don’t see challenges to this as likely going very far.
3 posted on 11/15/2007 7:24:00 PM PST by DB
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To: Hydroshock

ping


4 posted on 11/15/2007 7:24:26 PM PST by B4Ranch (( "Freedom is not free, but don't worry the U.S. Marine Corps will pay most of your share." ))
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To: org.whodat

Somebody has the paper.


5 posted on 11/15/2007 7:24:41 PM PST by DB
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To: givemELL

A lot of lenders made loans they should not have made on terms they should not have agreed on. The homeowners who overreached are not solely to blame.


6 posted on 11/15/2007 7:26:01 PM PST by Clintonfatigued (You can't be serious about national security unless you're serious about border security)
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To: givemELL

“The big issue in all these cases, whether we are dealing with a bankruptcy court, a state court or a federal court, is who really owns the mortgage note, and that is allegedly what they securitized, said O. Max Gardner III, a lawyer who represents borrowers in foreclosure in Shelby, N.C. “A collateral question is, has that mortgage note really been transferred and assigned to the securitization trust? If not, then they really don’t have standing. It’s Law School 101.”


7 posted on 11/15/2007 7:27:51 PM PST by proxy_user
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To: givemELL

I don’t agree with the judge. If they did not own it, then the true owner can sue to foreclose. If they did own it, then they can sue to foreclose. Someone can sue to foreclose. To me, it looks like the judge was looking for a way to let the borrower off the hook. Not good for the economy for judges to simply let people who owe money off the hook.


8 posted on 11/15/2007 7:31:39 PM PST by Brilliant
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To: DB
From the article: "I have heard of instances where the same loan is in two or three pools.”

Wow. Just wow. What in the world are we in for.
9 posted on 11/15/2007 7:32:00 PM PST by Iwo Jima ("Close the border. Then we'll talk.")
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To: org.whodat

In my view, it’s not really funny. The whole system will go to hell if judges won’t enforce mortgages.


10 posted on 11/15/2007 7:32:44 PM PST by Brilliant
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To: DB
Somebody has the paper.

True!

11 posted on 11/15/2007 7:33:05 PM PST by org.whodat (What's the difference between a Democrat and a republican????)
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To: Brilliant
If they did not own it, then the true owner can sue to foreclose. If they did own it, then they can sue to foreclose. Someone can sue to foreclose.

If you could rephrase that in a way that makes sense I'd be forever indebted.

12 posted on 11/15/2007 7:36:38 PM PST by steve86 (Acerbic by nature, not nurture ™)
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To: givemELL

This is NOT something which has some broad and important consequences. Deutsche Bank didn’t have handy the assignment contracts - ie, sloppy paperwork. It’s not as if there are not actual assignments in existence. Its not as though the local loan broker still holds the mortgage even though they get cashed out by DB a month after the note was recorded.

And this whole idea that these homeowners are somehow victims is retarded. In order to get foreclosed upon, you have to NOT BE MAKING YOUR MORTGAGE PAYMENTS!!! Its not like DB just rolled up to some old lady and said “Get Out!”. They don’t want to foreclose on these houses in a market like Ohio. They desparately want these people to start making payments of any kind and keep this paper out there.

There aren’t any victims in this situation. This is just bad representation by the law firm that showed up for DB. They should have had their ducks in a row like any reasonably competent counsel would have. And if they found that DB actually didn’t have notarized assignments to all these mortgages, then they would be slapping people in the head until they got the executed copies in their hands. End of story. Its not like a couple hundred thousand dollar note is just going to slip through the freaking cracks here. SOMEBODY owns the note. SOMEBODY is going to foreclose. The borrowers have guaranteed that by not paying their mortgage (probably for six months or more by the time of this hearing).

This is a clerical matter and not some matter of law. Its like showing up with a lawsuit in which nobody signed the last page attesting that it was written by them. Just sloppiness.


13 posted on 11/15/2007 7:39:45 PM PST by bpjam (Harry Reid doesn't even have 32% of my approval)
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To: Brilliant
But lawyers for Deutsche Bank supplied documents showing only an intent to convey the rights in the mortgages rather than proof of ownership as of the foreclosure date.

All they need to do is show the judge they own the mortgages and he will enforce them.

14 posted on 11/15/2007 7:40:16 PM PST by org.whodat (What's the difference between a Democrat and a republican????)
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To: Brilliant

>> If they did not own it, then the true owner can sue to foreclose.

I wonder if maybe a whole bunch of mortgages were pooled as collateral for some complex investment vehicle that in turn is owned by a whole bunch of investors. Thus, there’s a many-to-many relationship between investors and borrowers.

So, each investor kinda sorta owns a little piece of each mortgage — but no particular investor can prove complete ownership of any particular mortgage.

If so — what a mess!!!


15 posted on 11/15/2007 7:43:39 PM PST by Nervous Tick (Retire Ron Paul! Support Chris Peden (www.chrispeden.org))
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To: Nervous Tick
Hmmmmm.

The Tragedy of the Commons...

16 posted on 11/15/2007 7:46:27 PM PST by null and void (No more Bushes/No more Clintons)
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To: Clintonfatigued

“The homeowners who overreached are not solely to blame.”

Ok not solely...maybe 95% to blame.


17 posted on 11/15/2007 7:47:03 PM PST by DemEater
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To: org.whodat
Well now, that’s the bottom line, isn’t it?
Or is it?
If your mortgage is now percentably apportioned and owned by several different investment groups, and not 100% by the bank you bought it from, whom do you make partial payments too?
18 posted on 11/15/2007 7:53:24 PM PST by sarasmom (Hunter /Thompson 2008! 15-35% of Democrats would be happy to vote for Hunter Thompson as POTUS!)
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To: bpjam

Before we had personal computers (!) I worked in the mortgage department of a bank. I had to coordinate the loan sales and make sure the manually typed assignment documents got recorded, etc. It was a nightmare of details and rushed deadlines. It looks like things have gotten worse instead of better, LOL.


19 posted on 11/15/2007 7:54:29 PM PST by donna (The United States Constitution and the Koran are mutually exclusive.)
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To: givemELL

Is this a tactic that the average debtor facing foreclosure can use? If so I would imagine that lawyers are buzzing about this.


20 posted on 11/15/2007 7:55:02 PM PST by montag813
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To: sarasmom

The mortgage servicer, who may (and probably is) a totally different party.


21 posted on 11/15/2007 7:58:06 PM PST by 1L
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To: org.whodat
I agree with you. How can a lender who did not originate the loan enforce the foreclosure proceeding with made up documents. Wallstreet has convoluted the whole process to where they don’t have a clue who truely holds the paper. A debtor makes the payments out to one company but another company starts the proceedings when in default? I say let them prove up first.
22 posted on 11/15/2007 7:59:02 PM PST by Orange1998
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To: givemELL
is a godsend to mortgage holders

Not unless it stops the meter and converts the loan to subprime for life. Looks like a delay of the inevitable to me.

23 posted on 11/15/2007 8:00:13 PM PST by RGSpincich
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To: Iwo Jima
"I have heard of instances where the same loan is in two or three pools."

This isn't all that uncommon. This kind of innovative approach to creating securitized mortgage pools goes back to the early days of the mortgage bond industry -- when big institutions like Salomon Brothers would create these odd securities called IO/PO bonds. These terms mean "interest only" and "principal only" -- and they referred to unusual collateralized bonds in which the principal payments from one set of loans were bundled together with the interest payments from another group of loans. So a homeowner's mortgage payments -- unbeknownst to him -- may be going to two separate investors who purchased his mortgage from the bank that originally lent him the money.

I'm not an expert in the mortgage bond business, but I believe there are reasons why this type of arrangement works well for certain types of investors. It may have something to do with the inherent "cash-out" risk associated with any mortgage because of the homeowner's right to pre-pay the mortgage at any time without a penalty.

24 posted on 11/15/2007 8:02:12 PM PST by Alberta's Child (I'm out on the outskirts of nowhere . . . with ghosts on my trail, chasing me there.)
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To: sarasmom
You send the payments to who it says in your little payment book, but alway make sure you keep your canceled checks forever.
25 posted on 11/15/2007 8:03:03 PM PST by org.whodat (What's the difference between a Democrat and a republican????)
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To: Brilliant

Problem is....they can’t prove they own it. This needs to be sorted out somewhere. It just happens to come at a bad time for some of these paper holders.


26 posted on 11/15/2007 8:19:56 PM PST by TheLion (How about "Comprehensive Immigration Enforcement," for a change)
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To: TheLion

So far, really thoughtful, considered responses...thank you all.


27 posted on 11/15/2007 8:25:04 PM PST by givemELL
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To: montag813

It may end up as a bunch of class-action suits....


28 posted on 11/15/2007 8:27:50 PM PST by expatpat
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To: givemELL

Interesting post. You could end up with more than one company forclosing on you. I can see why the judge ruled this way.


29 posted on 11/15/2007 8:28:37 PM PST by TheLion (How about "Comprehensive Immigration Enforcement," for a change)
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To: TheLion
I think it was the right decision. It's a basic principle of law that if you make a claim against someone based on an obligation owed to you, that you can document that obligation. If you can't document it in the way the law requires, then you can't use the court system to enforce the obligation. That's why we first had doctrines like the 'Statute of frauds' that require certain obligations to be in writing, and to be written in certain ways.

No matter how complex mortgage-backed securities get, if you want to foreclose, you'll still need to prove that you, in particular, have the right to foreclose. The judge is just telling the bank that their documents don't meet the requirements.

30 posted on 11/15/2007 8:41:18 PM PST by seacapn
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To: givemELL

A humorous, and very informational site on this topic is:

http://elainemeinelsupkis.typepad.com/money_matters/2007/11/foreclosed-hous.html


31 posted on 11/15/2007 10:58:22 PM PST by givemELL
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To: givemELL

There is no free ride, if the court overstepped anything on the lower level, the higher court will reverse the prior ruling.


32 posted on 11/15/2007 11:00:30 PM PST by A CA Guy (God Bless America, God bless and keep safe our fighting men and women.)
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To: givemELL; Calpernia; cbkaty; Nervous Tick; ex-Texan; RockinRight; NVDave; Neidermeyer; ...

Economy/Credit/Housing Issues Ping List

If you want on or off this list let me know


33 posted on 11/16/2007 2:02:03 AM PST by Hydroshock ("The Constitution should be taken like mountain whiskey -- undiluted and untaxed." - Sam Ervin)
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To: Hydroshock

bm for later


34 posted on 11/16/2007 2:10:06 AM PST by SShultz460 (Mexico: #1 Source of American School Children)
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To: steve86
If you could rephrase that in a way that makes sense I'd be forever indebted.

Not if the judge throws it out...

35 posted on 11/16/2007 2:16:03 AM PST by jrsmc
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To: TheLion

The question of who technically “owns” the mortgage is somewhat academic, though, because the “owner” is merely a representative of certain easily identifiable bondholders who are entitled to be paid. Clearly the bondholders have a right to be paid from the properties. They can appoint anyone they want, and who they appoint is between them and the appointee, having nothing to do with the obligations of the mortgagor.


36 posted on 11/16/2007 3:34:12 AM PST by Brilliant
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To: DemEater

Ok not solely...maybe 95% to blame.

>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>

I used to receive mailings touting how I could borrow up to 120% of the value of my real estate (it was mortgage free). I never took advantage of this but if I had how would you apportion the blame?


37 posted on 11/16/2007 4:33:04 AM PST by RipSawyer
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To: org.whodat

your little payment book, but alway make sure you keep your canceled checks forever

>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>

I don’t have a mortgage to worry about but my bank stopped sending out canceled checks years ago. What do you do then?


38 posted on 11/16/2007 4:38:35 AM PST by RipSawyer
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To: ex-Texan; Hydroshock

The shore area of our state (NJ) has been having their home owners insurance dropped. People are in danger of losing their mortgages. The claim is storm related areas and they no longer cover the area.

The shore area had experienced a boom in home purchases during the ARMs frenzy and now the homes are going to end up in foreclosures due to mortgages not being honored without homeowners insurance.


39 posted on 11/16/2007 4:39:13 AM PST by Calpernia (Hunters Rangers - Raising the Bar of Integrity http://www.barofintegrity.us)
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To: org.whodat

Well, that is not entirely true. The article states that the mortage note is physically held by a company that warehouses such documents.

The borrower has not really gained anything but perhaps some time. The forcloser is being forced to produce in the forclosure court the actual mortgge note rather than a document attesting to its existance and actual location.

The forclosed borrower is likely out the legal fees for the first battle and will still lose the war and additional legal fees in the next battle when the actual note is produced.


40 posted on 11/16/2007 4:52:45 AM PST by bert (K.E. N.P. +12 . Moveon is not us...... Moveon is the enemy)
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To: Nervous Tick
I wonder if maybe a whole bunch of mortgages were pooled as collateral for some complex investment vehicle that in turn is owned by a whole bunch of investors. Thus, there’s a many-to-many relationship between investors and borrowers.

No, there’s a “trustee” of the pool who owns the mortgages for the benefit of the various investors. The exact term “trustee” might not be the exact term used, but this entity by whatever name “owns” the mortgage and can enforce the mortgage in the name of the investors.

Probably in this case the “trustee” appears to be Deutsche Bank or some entity controlled by Deutsche, which has not kept its paperwork in order.

As others above have said, the remedy is to get the actual ownership in the mortgage paper transferred and then Deutsche can sue.

Only problem I can see: what if the originator of the loan has gone out of business, or even if it is still in business but can’t find the file with the original mortgage in it?

If Deutsche can’t get the paperwork, they can’t ever enforce the mortgage. And they will probably be liable to the owners of the mortgage-backed securities. Ouch big-time.

As someone said above, the job isn’t done until the paperwork is finished.

41 posted on 11/16/2007 5:00:29 AM PST by Cheburashka (DUmmieland = Opus Dopium. In all senses of the word dope.)
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To: Cheburashka

My mortgage was purchased in 2002 and yes, I have an ARM which I had hoped to get out of. Closing was set - and I was laid off so no closing. I’m making my payment within the month it is due (but always late). Not so good for my credit. Asked Wilshire if they would agree to a skipped payment and put it on the end of the loan. They said no - that they do not have the power/authority to change the terms of my original note. Does this make sense?


42 posted on 11/16/2007 5:44:51 AM PST by GYPSY286 (Politicians must USE their heads or Americans will LOSE their heads.)
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To: Brilliant

In my view, it’s not really funny. The whole system will go to hell if judges won’t enforce mortgages.
****************************************
Thats the point ,, they have been lax for 30+ years in enforcing the banks side ,, their paperwork has been deficient in the past and it was overlooked... The judge has decided that both sides have to comply...


43 posted on 11/16/2007 6:03:10 AM PST by Neidermeyer
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To: TheLion

I would put this simply as ... The judge stated “NO TICKEE ; NO LAUNDRY!”


44 posted on 11/16/2007 6:07:07 AM PST by Neidermeyer
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To: Neidermeyer

It’s not an issue that involves the mortgagor, though. It’s only an issue between the security holders and the bank. It’s a question of who the security holders want to act on their behalf. To let the mortgagor off because the judge can’t figure out the answer to that tangential question is nonsense. If the judge is confused about it, then fine... require the money and/or foreclosed property to be put in trust until he has a clear answer to that question. There should not be any real doubt about it though. The money ultimately goes to the security holders, not the bank, and who owns the securities is not really in doubt.


45 posted on 11/16/2007 6:16:15 AM PST by Brilliant
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To: Brilliant

actually this is not unheard of. It comes from slopping mortgage closings and incomplete papers.

This will be resolved as the lawyers now have to go back an find the defect and how they will be able to plead correctly.


46 posted on 11/16/2007 6:17:22 AM PST by longtermmemmory (VOTE! http://www.senate.gov and http://www.house.gov)
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To: Brilliant

Possessing rights to payment does not imply right to the property itself. Without the note, DB can’t take possession of the property. This is not a systemic problem, it’s institutional laziness, and it seems the judge is telling everyone to get their sh*t in order before challenging the integrity of the court to look the other way.


47 posted on 11/16/2007 6:18:11 AM PST by Rutles4Ever (Ubi Petrus, ibi ecclesia, et ubi ecclesia vita eterna)
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To: Rutles4Ever

My point is that it’s not DB’s rights anyway. DB is acting on behelf of the people who have a right to payment. They are merely an agent.

It’s sort of like if you hired a lawyer to handle a case for you, and he sent one of his associates to go with you to the hearing, and the judge refused to hear the associate because he can’t prove that he works for your lawyer. Who cares? You and he are there, and you’re telling the judge that he represents you. The judge doesn’t need to see the associate’s employment contract in order to decide the case.


48 posted on 11/16/2007 6:35:21 AM PST by Brilliant
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To: bpjam
This is a clerical matter and not some matter of law. Its like showing up with a lawsuit in which nobody signed the last page attesting that it was written by them. Just sloppiness. This is a deadly serious problem because it means that the financial skull-duggery of selling CDOs was fraudulent. If the CDO does not own the deed of trust, then there is no "C" in the CDO.
49 posted on 11/16/2007 6:42:02 AM PST by AndyJackson
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To: Brilliant
Clearly the bondholders have a right to be paid from the properties.

No, they have a right to an income stream from a pool of bundled securities, such as BS361-350-121-0a31. That security receives the income from the underlying mortgage payments.

50 posted on 11/16/2007 6:46:22 AM PST by AndyJackson
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