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The Historical Origins of Africa’s Underdevelopment
VoxEU.org ^ | December 8, 2007 | Nathan Nunn

Posted on 12/31/2007 2:24:28 AM PST by america4vr

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To: ladyjane
Why would you assume the best and brightest were sent here? They were usually the losers in tribal fighting. Besides, there’s so much intermingling between whites and Indians and blacks that the two genetic pools aren’t the same. After all, under the legal code, if you had one black ancestor, you were legally black.
141 posted on 12/31/2007 5:40:15 PM PST by GAB-1955 (Kicking and Screaming into the Kingdom of Heaven.)
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To: GAB-1955

Was 138 supposed to be for Ironfocus?


142 posted on 12/31/2007 5:49:20 PM PST by dsc
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To: GAB-1955

I am not assuming that. The earlier posters were saying that the exporting of the slaves resulted in the lack of talent and lack of development in Africa.

It would make more sense to me that the weaker, less aggressive people would be enslaved and shipped out. But that would mean a higher density of smart, productive people left in Africa. Ya can’t win!


143 posted on 12/31/2007 5:49:51 PM PST by ladyjane
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To: hinckley buzzard

“I.Q. is a small component of human intelligence.
This is a meaningless statement.”

No, it is very significant. There are lots of people who start out with very high IQs (180+) and end up as complete failures in life, never having accomplished anything worthwhile, dying broke and alone.


144 posted on 12/31/2007 5:52:55 PM PST by dsc
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To: Riverman94610
Its funny to me that Muhammed Ali could make a statement like that and then join a racist anti-white hate group like the Nation of Islam.

It was a bit uncouth of him, wasn't it?

Then again, he's been hit in the head a good many times.

145 posted on 12/31/2007 6:10:59 PM PST by Max in Utah (A nation can survive its fools, and even the ambitious. But it cannot survive treason from within.)
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To: Riverman94610

And it’s never leveled out.


146 posted on 12/31/2007 6:17:36 PM PST by bannie
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To: JimRed; BnBlFlag
IQ tests are culturally biased.

Some of them are. Some are not.

Structure an IQ test based on third world knowlege (what bugs are edible; what vines provide drinkable water; what fruits do you avoid a certain times of the year; what is the first step in choosing a site for your hut, et.) and most of us would look like morons.

All of the things you cited are examples of applied knowledge, which are only tangentially associated with IQ. A properly constructed and administered IQ test would not test for that type of knowledge.

An example of an unbiased, culturally neutral intelligence test:

The subject is seated in a chair in front of an angled table. In the center of the table is a pushbutton. Arranged in a semicircle around the central button are several other pushbuttons. Arranged in a slightly larger semicircle are a number of indicator lights, one for each pushbutton in the semicircle. The subject holds down the central pushbutton. When an indicator light illuminates, the subject removes his hand from the central button and smacks the button paired with the lit indicator light as fast as he can. (Think Whack-A-Mole.)

Without the subjects knowledge, two times are measured: The time it takes to release the central button after the light illuminates, and the time it takes to depress the outer button after releasing the central button. These times correspond to "cognitive processing time" and "reaction time." The "cognitive processing time" is strongly correlated (inversely) to intelligence.

Now this test is not sophisticated enough to produce an IQ number by itself, but there are many other such tests, too.

Where is the cultural bias in this test?

147 posted on 12/31/2007 6:49:44 PM PST by rmh47 (Go Kats! - Got Seven? [NRA Life Member])
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To: SeekAndFind
I think what needs to be kept in mind here is there’s more than enough variance within same-race or same-gender groups to make it unreasonable to render judgements about individuals via statistical characteristics of the large group.

If you're arguing that individuals should be judged on their personal strengths or weaknesses, you have a point. However, it is incorrect to assume that we cannot make statistical judgments of groups on the grounds that there is significant variation within those groups. For example, there is great height variation among men, and great height variation among women. But we can still state with absolute certainty that men are on average taller than women. And if you were hiring people for a task that could only be performed by people over six feet tall, you'd end up with an overwhelmingly male workforce.

The same is true of IQ, which is why the overwhelming majority of math and physics experts are male, and why some races easily get into Harvard without affirmative action and others don't.

The kerfluffle about which race has the highest average IQ is ridiculous. How many of you happen to know that East Asians have a higher average IQ than Caucasians? Yet a few thousand Caucasians who travelled thousands of miles in rickety wooden sailing ships dominated hundreds of millions of East Asians for much of recent history. So much for what a slightly higher IQ gets you in the real world, eh?

I'm fully aware that East Asians have a higher average IQ than Caucasians. But we never dominated those countries to the degree that we colonized Africa or the New World. Recall that IQ isn't the only factor in determining a nation's wealth and strength. It's just one factor, and a nation with an average IQ of 105 can be outperformed by a nation with an average IQ of 100 if the latter nation has a superior economic system, individual liberty, and so forth.

For me the proof of the pudding is always in the tasting. In the world today one nation stands head and shoulders above all others in economic and military achievement. And guess what - it’s the nation with the most racial diversity in its population and individual equality codified into its laws. Never argue with success.

Racial diversity has absolutely nothing to do with America's rise to the top. That occurred, you may recall, when racial minorities were largely eliminated from participation in the leadership of our nation. There's nothing wrong with individual equality before the law, of course, but that won't ever result in group equality. That's why there's a demand for affirmative action.

Having worked with people of all races opened up my eyes to the truth that racial features are no measure of a man. Heart, courage, honor, and brotherhood formed by common values and goals are what counts and I’m happy to report that people of all races, ethnic categories, and religious belief can display these virtues in great abundance working side by side.

I can't disagree with you on this, except for one thing. People of different races can only work together if one race vastly outnumbers the others, and the others are expected to conform to the culture of the majority race. Once you have a truly multicultural society, you're headed for big trouble. A nation which is 90% of one race, and 10% of a bunch of other races can do fine. A nation which is made up of ten different racial or ethnic groups, each with about 10% of the population, would end in disaster or dictatorship.

Minorities will only work toward a common goal with the majority if they are vastly outnumbered by that majority, and if that majority is determined to insist on its hegemony. Once you start having larger minority populations, people balkanize and stop working together toward a common goal. This is particularly true if the declining majority race voluntarily abandons any desire to maintain control. Witness Iraq. Witness India. Witness South Africa. Witness Detroit. Witness what is now happening in California.

Witness what is happening in France and England, and imagine what it will be like there when the Third World populations there reach 20% or 30% or 50%.

148 posted on 12/31/2007 7:14:05 PM PST by puroresu (Enjoy ASIAN CINEMA? See my Freeper page for recommendations (updated!).)
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To: DUMBGRUNT; Hiddigeigei
I.Q. is a small component of human intelligence.

Well, there's a can of worms for you, right there. First of all, how do we define intelligence? And what exactly is IQ? They're not easy questions to answer, actually. I don't want to get into that here. Nonetheless, they are intimately related, although not synonymous.

I think, judging by the Coolidge quote, what you are really trying to say is that IQ is a small component of human success - a sentiment with which I would wholly agree (although, again, we have the pesky problem of definition).

149 posted on 12/31/2007 7:21:10 PM PST by rmh47 (Go Kats! - Got Seven? [NRA Life Member])
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To: bannie; america4vr
One example was the genetic development of sickle cells to ward off malaria.

That's close, but not quite accurate. Sickle-cell anemia is recessive. You must inherit two copies of the gene, one from each parent, to develope the disease. Having sickle-cell disease is not advantageous to anyone, but having one copy of the trait is advantageous, as it offers protection from malaria.

150 posted on 12/31/2007 7:41:57 PM PST by rmh47 (Go Kats! - Got Seven? [NRA Life Member])
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To: puroresu
However, it is incorrect to assume that we cannot make statistical judgments of groups on the grounds that there is significant variation within those groups.

I don't think we are in disagreement here. However, I wrote my previous post in response to an even larger question --- DO STATISTICAL SAMPLINGS OF A GROUP's IQ MAKE UNDERDEVELOPMENT DETERMINISTIC ?

To make the question more straightforward, do we conclude that sub-Saharan Africa's poverty and underdevelopment is MAINLY because their average IQ is 70 ?

Some people in this thread seem to be arguing that this is the case and I don't buy that at all.

Here's a question that intrigues me ---- Let's say we have a group with an average IQ of say, 70 and another group with an average IQ of 100.

What would happen if the majority of the people in the former group consistently adhered to conservative, Judaeo-Christian values and ethics and the later consistently adhered to a liberal, distributionist, materialistic values ?

Would the former be more prosperous than the later after several generations ? I suspect the answer would be yes.
151 posted on 12/31/2007 10:25:45 PM PST by SeekAndFind
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To: Jedi Master Pikachu
While not a match for China, India, the Spanish, Portugal, or the Italian city states, etc., several of the more developed African kingdoms were basically on par--give or take here or there; cross-the-board higher development doesn't seem the norm up until Europe and the United States raced ahead with the Industrial Revolution--with lesser states in Eurasia.

As I understand it, most of the slave trade came from West Africa. It affected East Africa almost not at all. No? So if the slave trade theory is right, Eastern Africa should, on average, be on a par with Latin America or at least considerably ahead of Western Africa. Is there any evidence for that? Or is my premise wrong?

152 posted on 01/01/2008 12:13:10 AM PST by ModelBreaker
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To: Jedi Master Pikachu
Some continent on a planet lost a large portion of their people who were of prime laboring/working age and often in prime condition. Does that continent falling behind in development as a result seem all that far-fetched to you?

Europe. WWI. United States. Civil War. Europe and Russia. WWII. All caught back up quite quickly.

153 posted on 01/01/2008 12:14:40 AM PST by ModelBreaker
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To: Jedi Master Pikachu
Some continent on a planet lost a large portion of their people who were of prime laboring/working age and often in prime condition. Does that continent falling behind in development as a result seem all that far-fetched to you?

And now that I'm thinking about it. Europe--black death (1/3 of entire population). China under Mao (approximately 20 million killed). Russia under Stalin (approximately 10 million killed along with millions more in the second world war).

The obvious problem in Africa is that it has not adopted any of the attributes of wealthy societies--private property, enforceable contracts, and the like (South Africa being the exception). Societies are wealthy in proportion to their acceptance of those attributes (with the exception of natural resource states like UAE, Saudi Arabia and Qatar, which have something that wealth producing states want to buy).

I have a difficult time seeing how the slave trade 300 years ago has much to do with that. Would those folks taken from Africa as slaves have instituted private property or Western style legal systems? Did the slavers disproportionately pick the free-marketeers amongst the Africans? How would one begin to prove that thesis except by rank speculation?

Actually, I see foreign aid and socialism, which were exported from the West since the 1940's as being much more damaging to Africa than slavery 300 years ago. Foreign aid has not helped Africans build institutions that allow wealth creation. Instead, it goes to line the pockets and build the militia of the monster-de-jour and, had Africans been ready to adopt modern institutions that allow wealth creation, probably slowed that process down.

And, socialism is positively poison to the adoption of wealth-creation institutions. But in that regard, Africans chose to adopt the bad ideas from the west (socialism) and to ignore the good ones (private property, etc). Why, I don't know. But I don't think it has much to do with what happened 15 generations ago.

The other unfortunate event in large parts of Africa over the last 50 years has been the southern spread of Islam. Again, with the exception of the natural resource states, Islam brings poverty and dysfunctional states everywhere it goes.

154 posted on 01/01/2008 12:42:54 AM PST by ModelBreaker
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To: SeekAndFind
Yes, and I agree with Dr. Sowell also. I.Q. is not the reason why Africans were a thousand years behind Eurasians in food production. The reason they were ‘behind’ has a lot more to do with Africa than Africans. There is no conclusive biological data of large differences in the genetics between human populations, and there is no reason to assume that a ‘smart’ gene has developed in Eurasian populations and not in African, Meso-American, or Islander peoples.

As much as it might be self serving to the ego for someone who has accomplished little on their own to believe they belong to some privileged and gifted group (no need to actually try hard or accomplish anything, superior to begin with I tells ya!), there is just no evidence that the differences in I.Q. scores reflect a genetic difference.

155 posted on 01/01/2008 6:48:34 AM PST by allmendream ("A Lyger is pretty much my favorite animal."NapoleonD (Hunter 08))
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To: SeekAndFind
That’s a very good question. What would happen if a group with a low average IQ abided by conservative, Judeo-Christian values and capitalist economics, while a group with a much higher IQ was socialistic and hedonistic?

Certainly the low IQ group would benefit from their behavior, and the high IQ group would suffer from theirs, but would it be enough to cancel out the effects of the IQ gap?

If the gap were small (100 vs. 95, for example) I’d bet the lower IQ capitalist Christians would outperform the higher IQ socialist hedonists. But I’m not so sure that a gap of 100 vs. 70 could be overcome.

The problem, of course, is that low IQ groups don’t particularly show any interest in competitive, conservative economics. They may sometimes have socially conservative values on paper, but in reality it doesn't manifest itself. Therefore I would suggest that it would be almost impossible to create a conservative, market-oriented, family values culture among a low IQ population without using force of some kind, which of course would violate the very premises of freedom being espoused.

Are you aware of any area dominated by populations who score low on IQ tests which are fiscally and socially conservative?

156 posted on 01/01/2008 6:52:10 AM PST by puroresu (Enjoy ASIAN CINEMA? See my Freeper page for recommendations (updated!).)
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To: allmendream

It’s not a gene, it’s an average.

Men don’t have a special math gene, but they consistently outperform women in areas requiring spatial reasoning. This doesn’t mean that every man is better at these things than every woman, or that there can’t be women who are prodigies in these fields (such as physicist Lisa Randall).

But it means that, on average, that portion of the brain dealing with spatial conceptualization is more developed in men than in women. Thus, in a population that is roughly 50-50 male-female, the number of expert physicists will likely be 95% male. And it is genetic.

Do you think the human brain is exempt from nature?


157 posted on 01/01/2008 7:14:40 AM PST by puroresu (Enjoy ASIAN CINEMA? See my Freeper page for recommendations (updated!).)
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To: rmh47
I understand that...but the proliferation of the cell is a genetic survival tool for the residents.
158 posted on 01/01/2008 8:14:16 AM PST by bannie
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To: allmendream
"As much as it might be self serving to the ego for someone who has accomplished little on their own to believe they belong to some privileged and gifted group"

Not that there may some exceptions, but sub-saharan Africa,the island continent Australia, and generally in North America - the early inhabitants mostly lacked what? Reading, writing and rithmetic....Not to mention the wheel?

South, Middle Americans not so....North Africa, not so.

Can we say they were disadvantaged by geography in all those cases? Think not--as the author indicates re Africa......

159 posted on 01/01/2008 10:41:47 AM PST by litehaus (A memory tooooo long)
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To: yankeedame

Thats a great article and believe the same as Sowell.


160 posted on 01/01/2008 11:48:03 AM PST by KC_Conspirator
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