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To: Man50D
In order for this requirement to be satisfied, clearly both parents of the child must be U.S. citizens, for if one is not, the child would inherit the foreign allegiance and loyalty of foreign parent and would thereby “belong to a foreign Government.”

Like Mulder used to say, "I want to believe," but this statement does not, from the preceding statements, follow; it is the inference of the writer of the article, and has no supporting historical underpinning quoted in the article.

Everything that follows, therefore, is opinion, and you know what they say about those...

14 posted on 01/10/2010 5:41:53 PM PST by Publius6961 (…he's not America, he's an employee who hasn't risen to minimal expectations.)
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To: Publius6961
Everything that follows, therefore, is opinion, and you know what they say about those...

I know what they say about those who refuse to read the information before them. Particularly Chief Justice Waite's ruling “The Constitution does not, in words, say who shall be natural-born citizens. Resort must be had elsewhere to ascertain that. At common-law, with the nomenclature of which the framers of the Constitution were familiar, it was never doubted that all children born in a country of parents who were its citizens became themselves upon their birth, citizens also.

And the Dred Scott ruling.

Dred Scott even removed the word “father” and replaced it with the word “parents.”Vattel’s law: EXCERPT 2: de Vattel’s Law of Nations circa 1758 Book 1, Chapter XIX, &212:

The natives, or NATURAL-BORN CITIZENS, are those born in the country, of parents who are citizens.. The country of the fathers is therefore that of the children; and these become true citizens merely by their tacit consent.

Obviously legal opinions don't count in your myopic thinking.
18 posted on 01/10/2010 7:15:33 PM PST by Man50D (Fair Tax, you earn it, you keep it! www.FairTaxNation.com)
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