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To: driftless2
U.S. income inequality declined from 1947 to 1968 (http://www.census.gov/prod/1/pop/p60-191.pdf).
16 posted on 11/03/2011 11:28:52 AM PDT by JustSayNoToNannies
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To: JustSayNoToNannies
Yes, the end of WWII and The Great Depression, and the rise of the middle class caused income inequality to favor the up and comers for a period of time. My point is that with the expansion of wealth after the start of the Industrial Revolution, it was inevitable that while everyone's boats would get lifted, some boats would be lifted a lot higher. But, of course, in a free-market system where certain enterprises involve higher stakes, some people would get richer.

But the response to that is, so what? I grew up very poor until my father made enough money to move us into the middle class. But I never begrudged some other kids because their dad had a lot more money than we had. If in some enterprise I made a lot of money but someone else made a lot more because they had more skin in the game, I'm not upset.

17 posted on 11/03/2011 11:39:11 AM PDT by driftless2
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