“Statists expect to recieve special treatment. It may be necessary, but these events were not related to Justice Breyer’s Supreme Court status.”
Ironic indeed, although one would expect to see more attacks that are related to his dictatorial position. In the age of juridical dictatorship(judges able to make law) killing a Federal Supreme court “judge” has a far more lasting effect a president. Frankly I’m surprised more of them have not been knocked off.
As for his D.C. ruling I disagree with him on the simple fact that D.C. is under the “exclusive” domestic jurisdiction of congress. The same Congress that is spelled out in the 2nd amendment.
The Illinois case however is completely wrong and he was right to rule against it. The leglsator and Constitution of the State of Illinois is most defiantly NOT congress, nor does congress have any legitimate domestic jurisdiction over the state of Illinois.
Article 1 Section 8 clearly only give congress such domestic authority over D.C. and federal instillation. So how does D.C. manage to pass laws and elect its own government? To put it simply illegally. To put it precisely congress bypasses its constitutional obligation to exclusive exclusive jurisdictional by ratifying everything D.C. does.
So even by congresses own twisted logic they passed the D.C. gun ban, not D.C.
I am afraid that you are either wrong, or misinformed, on 2 counts.
First, DC’s government, any all of its authority to pass and enforce laws, comes from the Congress. Congress has delegated its Constitutional authority to some extent and could, at any time, take back some or all of that authority. IOW, what DC’s government does has the approval of Congress.
Second, IL is as bound by the 14th Amendment as any other state. The 2nd applies to it, and all of its county and local subdivisions, by virtue of the 14th. This principle has been ruled upon literally hundreds of times by the Supremes over the years regarding other parts of the BOR; the breakthrough in the Chicago case was that the Supremes finally took the logical step of giving the 2nd the same force in law as the 1st, 4th, 5th, etc. Frankly, it was long overdue.
You are incorrect; the 2nd Amendment is written in the passive-voice wherein it is the action that is the subject (and the actor is irrelevant), congress is never mentioned.
Perhaps you are getting confused with the 1st Amendment which starts with "Congress shall make no law".
You may be able to make the argument that the Amendments in the Bill of Rights are to be wholly binding on the federal government only, but that is a different claim than you have made.