It would only be 'similar,' if we forced the felon's victim to sell him the firearm or be in contact with the armed dirtbag. As for the child resulting from the rapist's crime, he/she should be considered the proceeds of his crime. Since when are criminals entitled to the proceeds of their crimes?
When the limitations placed by "sex offender" laws, even restricts a rapist's freedom to interact with other woman/children, why should he be allowed to interact with the women victim and child resulting from his crime?
Finally, felons have never had the right to vote until demented liberal logic gave it to them. Are you on FR to support extending demented liberal logic even futher?
Not at all. Please see my later comments above, #30 and #33 in particular, in response to others FReepers; and please consider yourself addressed by those as well. Thanks!
The defense attornies argued successfully in a MA court that since it wasn't possible to figure out which bat had killed which victim, murder was not provable.
I believe they changed their laws a bit since then, but you'd think that by the time the 20th Century had come around even MA legislators would have figured out how to describe mob or group action and how to hold members accountable for the crimes.