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To: dayglored
"by the same logic we all use here on FreeRepublic that a felon who has completed his sentence should regain his right to bear firearms and vote..."

It would only be 'similar,' if we forced the felon's victim to sell him the firearm or be in contact with the armed dirtbag. As for the child resulting from the rapist's crime, he/she should be considered the proceeds of his crime. Since when are criminals entitled to the proceeds of their crimes?

When the limitations placed by "sex offender" laws, even restricts a rapist's freedom to interact with other woman/children, why should he be allowed to interact with the women victim and child resulting from his crime?

Finally, felons have never had the right to vote until demented liberal logic gave it to them. Are you on FR to support extending demented liberal logic even futher?

37 posted on 10/03/2012 3:24:18 PM PDT by drpix
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To: drpix
> Are you on FR to support extending demented liberal logic even futher?

Not at all. Please see my later comments above, #30 and #33 in particular, in response to others FReepers; and please consider yourself addressed by those as well. Thanks!

38 posted on 10/03/2012 3:31:59 PM PDT by dayglored (Listen, strange women lying in ponds distributing swords is no basis for a system of government!)
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To: drpix
Still, this is Massachusetts ~ they do things that are unusual. For example, about 30 years back a couple of thugs beat up and killed a couple of East Asian kids. The deed was done with baseball bats.

The defense attornies argued successfully in a MA court that since it wasn't possible to figure out which bat had killed which victim, murder was not provable.

I believe they changed their laws a bit since then, but you'd think that by the time the 20th Century had come around even MA legislators would have figured out how to describe mob or group action and how to hold members accountable for the crimes.

46 posted on 10/03/2012 4:14:55 PM PDT by muawiyah
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