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To: Vince Ferrer

I’m fairly certain that concept predates Catholicism.


28 posted on 02/17/2013 2:00:08 PM PST by DuncanWaring (The Lord uses the good ones; the bad ones use the Lord.)
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To: DuncanWaring; Vince Ferrer

Indeed.

Christ’s teachings in Matthew 19:4-6:

http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew%2019:4-6&version=ESV

where He is quoting Genesis 1:27:

http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis%201:27&version=ESV

and Genesis 2:24:

http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis%202:24&version=ESV


40 posted on 02/17/2013 2:13:28 PM PST by ReformationFan
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To: DuncanWaring
I’m fairly certain that concept predates Catholicism.

While I probably can't find the reference, I have read that it is the only religion that has been monogamous for its whole history.

46 posted on 02/17/2013 2:46:45 PM PST by Vince Ferrer
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To: DuncanWaring
I’m fairly certain that concept predates Catholicism.

While I probably can't find the reference, I have read that it is the only religion that has been monogamous for its whole history.

47 posted on 02/17/2013 2:46:49 PM PST by Vince Ferrer
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To: DuncanWaring; Vince Ferrer
You're mostly right, Duncan, since monogamy seems to have begun its rise to cultural predominance much earlier. The Jewish Enyclopedia (Link) explains that monogamy became de-facto social norm in the period after the Babylonian exile (that would be the 6th-5th century BC).

The Roman Law (meaning the secular law of the Roman Empire) allowed only one legal wife per husband, although secondary liaisons with concubines, slaves, paramours, and prostitutes were common amongst the pagan Romans.

What clinched the deal for monogamy was that the Catholic Church accepted the Roman (secular) law of only one legal wife, and additionally insisted on fidelity of both the husband and the wife (no fornication, no adultery), as taught by Jesus and quite explicitly by Paul. Thus you had a "cementing" of monogamy in both secular and religious practice, set up by Roman Catholic law.

Rabbi Gershom (11th century AD) legislated mandatory monogamy for Western Jews, but this was only the formalization of what had been the actual practice amongst Western Jews for many centuries. I believe polygamy persisted longer amongst Eastern Jews, but it was not common, and was permitted only if the first wife was infertile, since the Jews strongly understood the purpose of marriage as procreative.

53 posted on 02/17/2013 3:03:30 PM PST by Mrs. Don-o
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