If President Obama possess the legal authority to delay the employer mandate despite what the law says, then any future President has the same legal authority and it wouldn't "represent an egregious violation of the public trust, the presidential oath, and the separation of powers". How could it unless Obama making this unilateral decision is the same thing?
Is it because the fictional president in this hypothetical situation is a Republican that he or she is expected to actually obey the law? Perhaps this hypothetical President is white so they can't call any criticism racist?
posted on 08/02/2013 5:21:35 AM PDT
(You can avoid reality, but you cannot avoid the consequences of avoiding reality. Ayn Rand)
posted on 08/02/2013 5:23:07 AM PDT
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