2nd post I’ve just seen saying pedophiles are 30-35% homosexual. Do you mean 30% of pedophile cases are against boys, or do 30% of them identify as homosexual in their sex life? If it’s against boys, how do the pedophiles sexually identify? Because if 30% of pedophiles are homosexually identified, homos are screwed.
30% of incidents of pedophilia are same sex. I would take that to indicate they identify as homosexual (since it is what occurred).