Posted on 07/14/2014 7:45:12 AM PDT by wagglebee
bump
If that was the case we wouldnt we be seeing comparatively large numbers of gays marrying in the states where they can do so?
...your response is baffling me...perhaps one too many we’s confuses the meaning...do you mean to say ‘we wouldn’t be seeing’, or ‘wouldn’t we be seeing’...
Sorry, if it was all driven by benefits, how come there aren’t comparatively large numbers of gays getting married where they can now do so?
Freegards
Yes, you seem to be right. I wonder why he is credited for it in so many places, even conservative pro-marriage websites.
Freegards
Their fallback position is due to Reagan “popularizing” No-fault, but a bit disingenuous considering Oklahoma passed No-fault first and is often viewed as a “conservative” State.
Yeah, it’s always something like ‘he signed it and a decade or so later it was everywhere.’ I do recall that his son said he regretted it, or maybe I’m thinking about the abortion bill.
I found the article where there is a claim he regretted it, but I suppose you have to take it with a grain of salt in that they say he was the first to sign no-fault divorce legislation too. Maybe the bulk of the states went no-fault soon after CA and there was a big gap between Oklahoma and CA?
http://catholicexchange.com/the-40th-anniversary-of-%E2%80%9Cno-fault%E2%80%9D-divorce
Freegards
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