The Hebrew writer spent 3 chapters explaining such.
Hebrews 7:11 If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
Thank you. I will incorporate those thoughts in my next revision (The above is pretty sloppy in form, grammar and spelling)
I think I need to explain further why I place so much emphasis on Acts. The Episcopal church placed much emphasis on the fact that their new revelation for ordaining a gay bishop was based on the coming together of many Christians who prayed for guidance by the Holy Spirit. Acts 15 is about the same and the Christians that gathered there included Peter. This was the original Church and the decree from the orginal church is that bans on fornication is a minimum requirement in the law.