Why would claiming that Jesus's conception was immaculate automatically mean that Mary was without sin?
Any Catholic can jump in please. I'm not a Catholic, but I think you are confusing what Immaculate Conception means with the Virgin birth of Jesus. The Apostle's and Nicene creeds which some/most Protestant denominations affirm (one or both) confess that Jesus was born of the Virgin Mary. Mary was a virgin prior to the conception of Jesus and remained so until He was born. I think Immaculate Conception starts before and goes beyond that part of her life. Most Protestants believe Mary after Christ's birth was in every way her husband Joseph's wife.
posted on 04/27/2008 9:55:44 PM PDT
Most Protestants believe Mary after Christ's birth was in every way her husband Joseph's wife.
This is what I get for not going to Wiki...this statement would be going against the concept of Mary's Perpetual Virginity, not IC. If this isn't a Catholic teaching please correct me.
posted on 04/27/2008 10:28:35 PM PDT
I'm not a Catholic, but I think you are confusing what Immaculate Conception means with the Virgin birth of Jesus.
You are correct. I was confusing the two. Now that I know that the two are separate things, I realize that I know even less about the whole Mary thing than I thought.
posted on 04/28/2008 10:03:47 AM PDT
(So foul a sky clears not without a storm.)
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