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To: Just mythoughts; Star Traveler; Lee N. Field; Alex Murphy; Gamecock
The disciples were of Judah ...

Are you talking about The Twelve? Where does the Bible teach this? I can’t seem to find anywhere where any of the apostles’ tribal affiliation is mentioned (except Paul). Since at least some of the apostles were from the region around Galilee ("of the Gentiles", cf. Mark 1:16), it unlikely there were all from Judah.

It’s pretty clear just from reading the NT (and the OT as well) that the word "Israel" often means more than just the northern tribes. You apparently don’t have a position on that truth. The entire nation was often referred to as "the house of Israel" (Ex. 16:31). This was the common usage at the time of Christ. When speaking to the woman of Canaan, Jesus told her, But He answered and said, "I was not sent except to the lost sheep of the house of Israel." (Matt. 15:24). Jesus was ministering first to His Jewish brethren ("the house of Israel"), from which He called the Twelve and others, and not primarily to the surrounding gentile communities.

As much as I would like to engage you on this matter, serious discussion is difficult with this sort of defective starting point on your part.

154 posted on 10/08/2008 7:47:17 PM PDT by topcat54 ("The selling of bad beer is a crime against Christian love.")
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To: topcat54
Are you talking about The Twelve? Where does the Bible teach this? I can’t seem to find anywhere where any of the apostles’ tribal affiliation is mentioned (except Paul). Since at least some of the apostles were from the region around Galilee ("of the Gentiles", cf. Mark 1:16), it unlikely there were all from Judah.

I should have written House of Judah meaning NOT of the House of Israel.

It’s pretty clear just from reading the NT (and the OT as well) that the word "Israel" often means more than just the northern tribes. You apparently don’t have a position on that truth. The entire nation was often referred to as "the house of Israel" (Ex. 16:31). This was the common usage at the time of Christ. When speaking to the woman of Canaan, Jesus told her, But He answered and said, "I was not sent except to the lost sheep of the house of Israel." (Matt. 15:24). Jesus was ministering first to His Jewish brethren ("the house of Israel"), from which He called the Twelve and others, and not primarily to the surrounding gentile communities.

The word Israel was first used when Jacob was renamed. Christ's usage of the 'lost sheep' of the House of Israel refers to a specific time after the civil war the two houses split and were identified as two different kingdoms. House of Israel and the House of Judah. One of the punishments for the whoring after other gods by the House of Israel would be they would forget who they were. And they are also called Ephraim as he was the largest of the ten tribes sent north to the Assyrian king. They have NOT returned and will not return until Christ Himself rejoins those two sticks. And the majority of them still do not know who they are, they are stilllllll lost. Christ identified who he was talking about when he used the term 'lost sheep'.

This is not about my point or having a point, it is to understand why the first instruction Christ would give to His disciples would be to go but to those lost sheep of the House of Israel.

When Christ gave this instruction these people He chose to be His disciples did not say Master where do we find these lost sheep of the House of Israel? So how did they know what and who Christ was talking about??? And why would Christ waste the time and words over a very short 3 1/2 year time frame of teaching, to make it the first instruction????

I can't take seriously people who downplay even the very WORDS that came from the mouth of Christ.

As much as I would like to engage you on this matter, serious discussion is difficult with this sort of defective starting point on your part.

OK.

155 posted on 10/08/2008 8:41:14 PM PDT by Just mythoughts (Isa.3:4 And I will give children to be their princes, and babes shall rule over them.)
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