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What Language(s) Did Jesus Speak and Why Does It Matter?
markdroberts.com ^ | February 2004 (updated 2/2007) | Mark D. Roberts

Posted on 09/18/2009 12:54:26 PM PDT by Nikas777

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To: BibChr; kosta50
Jesus declared he was the "Alpha and Omega".

For years I thought that meant the start and ending in Greek but then I as I matured I realized Jesus was brilliantly using Greek to say something.

The Greek alphabet is from the east from the Phoenicians and the Semitic languages. Greekt shares some consonant letters like the "Alpha" but the Omega like all vowels are Greek invented letters.

Was Christ saying he is not only the starting and ending of all but that he was also starting from the Hebrew and ending the Greek/wider world?

I think he was.

21 posted on 09/18/2009 1:16:55 PM PDT by Nikas777 (En touto nika, "In this, be victorious")
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To: Nikas777

OK I’ll trans-bite.

You said, if I grok it correctly, Jesus wouldn’t have understood Hebrew spoken in the manner of a living language. No matter that the grammar was there.

I suppose I could disagree if only because of His deity status. But it doesn’t need a god to know how to construct sentences in Hebrew....


22 posted on 09/18/2009 1:18:18 PM PDT by HiTech RedNeck (Unashamed Sarah-Bot.)
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To: BigEdLB
Actually, that's something Mel likely got wrong. It's very unlikely Jesus knew any Latin and few Jews would have. The cosmopolitan language of the Eastern Mediterranean for business and government was Greek. Many educated Romans learned Greek. If they did communicate without a translator, it was likely in Greek.
23 posted on 09/18/2009 1:19:03 PM PDT by colorado tanker (Barack Obama is an old Kenyan word for Jimmy Carter)
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To: Patrick1

It he did speak Greek, why the in-narrative translation of his prophetic cry from the cross?


24 posted on 09/18/2009 1:19:09 PM PDT by fwdude (It is not the liberals who will destroy this country, but the "moderates.")
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To: BibChr
Get that. He takes the only record we have of Jesus' words — which is Greek — and pushes it aside in favor of an interpretation based on a wholly-conjectural Aramaic original. So yeah. It matters.

We forget Jesus lived in Egypt - which to me means Alexandria (where else would Joseph get work as a carpenter?).

I can see Jesus shopping with his mother at the Alexandrian market where transactions and gossip, etc was in Greek.

Denying Jesus spoke Greek is accusing him of being a hick.

25 posted on 09/18/2009 1:19:41 PM PDT by Nikas777 (En touto nika, "In this, be victorious")
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To: Always Right

I thought that was an Archie Bunker quote?


26 posted on 09/18/2009 1:19:51 PM PDT by fwdude (It is not the liberals who will destroy this country, but the "moderates.")
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To: Nikas777

The language of faith and truth


27 posted on 09/18/2009 1:20:30 PM PDT by Gaffer
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To: Patrick1

“Aramaic”

Exactly, I didn’t thing that was in dispute.


28 posted on 09/18/2009 1:21:53 PM PDT by traderrob6
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To: BibChr

In a particular kind of plenary inspiration theology, it would. For Jesus to have talked in Aramaic, or Hebrew, and to have that later rendered into a Greek quotation by someone writing a gospel, would be theologically unspeakable!

It’s what happened, though.


29 posted on 09/18/2009 1:22:27 PM PDT by HiTech RedNeck (Unashamed Sarah-Bot.)
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To: fwdude

“If the King’s English was good enough for Jesus Christ, it’s good enough for the children of Texas!”
Ma Ferguson


30 posted on 09/18/2009 1:23:00 PM PDT by tumblindice
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To: HiTech RedNeck; BibChr
You said, if I grok it correctly, Jesus wouldn’t have understood Hebrew spoken in the manner of a living language. No matter that the grammar was there.

No I did not say that. Jesus could make all tongues understood to him if you accept Jesus had holy powers. But Let us suppose Jesus was highly educated without dwelling on his supernatural powers.

Jesus did not bother speaking Hebrew as an everyday language because no one else did. If I speak Latin like a Roman what good does it do me if I go shopping for shoes where everyone speaks English? Jesus's own people did not use it themselves for everyday purposes.

31 posted on 09/18/2009 1:23:27 PM PDT by Nikas777 (En touto nika, "In this, be victorious")
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To: Nikas777
Fair enough.

But even more, it simply shrugs off the rock-solid accounts we have which are (hel-lo?) in GREEK. And it makes no sense of the occasional notes of Aramaic in the records. Why interject these little Aramaic spurts, if that was His characteristic language? There's no deep significance to "Talitha kum" that couldn't have been communicated by korasion, egeire, or some other Greek phrase.

But if He didn't characteristically speak Aramaic in public, these rare little dabs make sense.

32 posted on 09/18/2009 1:23:35 PM PDT by BibChr ("...behold, they have rejected the word of the LORD, so what wisdom is in them?" [Jer. 8:9])
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To: Patrick1

“The other question is “does it matter”? The answer would be no.”

I disagree, the more we learn about our Lord the better.


33 posted on 09/18/2009 1:24:00 PM PDT by traderrob6
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To: Patrick1
The other question is “does it matter”? The answer would be no

I have to disagree with you on that one. In order to interpret the Bible it is important to know the language that is being translated into our English Bibles. I like to remind folks that the Bible writers were divinely inspired but the translators were not. So the actual meaning of the words as written in the original language is sometimes different than translated. It matters.

For exanmple, the perrenial argument about the "Peter = Rock" brings the language Jesus spoke into play. The non-Catholic will cite to the Latin word for rock(petra)which is used to raise the issue of whether Jesus was referring to Petras(small) or Petros(large). Since Latin is a romance language words have a male or female version. The change in gender from petras to Petros is to account for the fact that Peter is male.

The Aramaic word for rock is Kefa which has no gender distinction. Thus, in Aramaic when Jesus said "Peter you are Rock and upon this Rock I build my Church" it is clear that he was referring to Peter both times. The Language he spoke is important.

34 posted on 09/18/2009 1:24:55 PM PDT by lawdave
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To: Nikas777
Just for the sake a discussion, the other side: Jesus Spoke Hebrew
by Dr. Roy B. Blizzard, Jr.
http://webbpage.bravehost.com/Yavo/1_2_Bliz_JesusSpokeHebrew.html
35 posted on 09/18/2009 1:28:39 PM PDT by Proverbs 3-5
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To: Nikas777

He has a gift for stating the obvious. Anyone with the least bit of knowledge about Christianity knows that Jesus’ primary language was Aramaic. I suppose the author’s next revelation is that Jesus was male. It really doesn’t matter what language Jesus spoke, but what does matter is knowing the original languages of the Bible, especially Koine, if you are minister. The laity can do very well by using the NASB, NJV, or ESV versions.


36 posted on 09/18/2009 1:29:37 PM PDT by Nosterrex
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To: colorado tanker; BigEdLB
Romans learned two types of Greek.

The educated Romans learned the Attic Greek of Athens which was very difficult and also they and the normal Roman would know the more popular Koine Greek.

If a Roman was wealthy enough his wetnurse was probably Greek and those were the first words he heard.

People don't know this because of the Shakespeare play but Julius Caesar did not say in Latin "Et Tu, Brute?" when Suetonius said Caesar's last words were "Kai sy, teknon?" which is the Greek for "You too, descendent?" or "You too, child?" (It was common gossip in Rome that Brutus was Caesar's illegitemate child).

So in that case you can see that while Latin was used for formal functions, Greek was the language the Romans used for intimate purposes between themselves.

37 posted on 09/18/2009 1:29:49 PM PDT by Nikas777 (En touto nika, "In this, be victorious")
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To: BibChr
Why interject these little Aramaic spurts, if that was His characteristic language?

BECAUSE it was important to the gospel writer (and to God, in using the writer) to report the actual Divine utterances at those times. Aramaic had a separate Jewish theological significance. Certain angels traditionally held to communicate between man and God (no, Christians don't use that system, but I speak of Jewish tradition) could only speak Aramaic.

38 posted on 09/18/2009 1:30:06 PM PDT by HiTech RedNeck (Unashamed Sarah-Bot.)
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To: lawdave

That is a different issue. The Bible is written in Greek and Hebrew. Granted that Hebrew is very similar to Aramaic and that the translation is important. But the translation is from those who wrote the scriptures and wrote quotes from Christ not Christ speaking into a “tape recorder” for example.

My point is that what language he spoke is no more important than his skin or hair color. The message is clear in whatever language.


39 posted on 09/18/2009 1:30:11 PM PDT by Patrick1 (I'm not calling in sick; I'm calling in gone!)
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To: Nikas777

I personally believe that concentrating on matters like this, takes away from the message of WHAT He spoke and not HOW He spoke it.


40 posted on 09/18/2009 1:31:53 PM PDT by Mind Freed (Maybe Obama was the Wright choice... Let's wait till everything Ayers out.)
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