New papal decree clarifies role of deacons and result of defections on marriage

cna ^ | December 15, 2009

[Heliand]

You misread that scripture..try again

I'm sorry, did someone die and make you the Popessa? Because otherwise, its my personal interpretation of scripture and just as valid as whatever you think you are coming up with.

What is the "required " form..and who required it. What was the required form when Christ lived?

The form is the mutual consent by the spouses to live in a Christian marriage (permanent, indissoluble, procreative, blessed by the Church). Christ required it. The requirement at the time of Christ was the same other than blessing by the Church, which did not exist yet, and this requirement of form had existed from the beginning of time. (St. Matthew 19.4)

[Mad Dawg]

Are you serious? I mean that seriously. I don't understand what the object of this question (if that's what it is) is.

My wife and I married each other freely, with the intention that the union be fertile and lifelong. We had no souses still living. There is no question about the validity of our marriage.

If there were any possible question it would have been raised and dealt with when we were preparing to enter into full communion with the Church.

[Mad Dawg]

[Campion:]Do you really think that God cares about the "legitimacy" of a child? I think, in God's eyes, all children are "legitimate".

[RnMomof7:]I think He cares cares about all sin

So an illegitimate child is sin?

Certainly an illegitimate child is a result or consequence of a sinful act. But so is Joseph's being able to protect his family in Egypt.

If we're going to do the clever cross-examination of the hostile witness routine (which is usually a waste of time, but whatever) let's at least exercise lawyerly care in our use of language.