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The Lady of Fatima: Has Mary Appeared in Visions?
Christian Research Institute ^ | Hank Hanegraaff

Posted on 02/19/2010 11:32:44 PM PST by bogusname

THE LADY OF FATIMA- Introduction Some Roman Catholics believe that Mary, the mother of Christ, has actually appeared to people in places like Fatima and Medjugorje. Well, did she?

THE LADY OF FATIMA- Biblical? In evaluating the alleged appearances of Mary, our primary concern would be to determine whether these apparitions are indeed biblical. Interestingly enough, these “Marian apparitions” (as they are commonly referred to) are inextricably woven together with the official Catholic teachings about Mary which, by the way, is known as Mariology. In fact, it would be fair to say that Catholic Mariology is the very foundation of Marian apparitions. It’s been well said that a structure is only as solid as its foundation; and in looking at Marian apparitions, we need to examine the integrity of this whole concept referred to as Catholic Mariology.

(Excerpt) Read more at equip.org ...


TOPICS: Catholic; General Discusssion
KEYWORDS: agendadrivenfreeper; blessedvirginmary; bvm; catholic; catholicwhiners; fatima; mary; olfatima; virginmary
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To: Cyclops08
Then perhaps you could point out to me a single instance of anyone in the Bible praying to dead people.

Your Bible is redacted.

Even in this concatenated form, it still does not say sola Scriptura.

81 posted on 02/20/2010 2:59:57 PM PST by Petronski (In Germany they came first for the Communists, And I didn't speak up because I wasn't a Communist...)
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To: Cyclops08
In all your long dissertation, you have shown not a single verse that shows anyone praying to the dead.

In all your long dissertations, you have not shown a single verse that dictates sola Scriptura.

82 posted on 02/20/2010 3:02:29 PM PST by Petronski (In Germany they came first for the Communists, And I didn't speak up because I wasn't a Communist...)
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Comment #83 Removed by Moderator

To: Cyclops08
I won’t look farther than my own Bible. If its not in the Bible, Its not true.

Since sola Scriptura is not in the Bible, it's not true....yet you insist on it, a false tradition of men.

84 posted on 02/20/2010 3:04:52 PM PST by Petronski (In Germany they came first for the Communists, And I didn't speak up because I wasn't a Communist...)
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To: Cyclops08
Buy any indulgences lately? Thats a catholic tradition.

Nope.

85 posted on 02/20/2010 3:07:19 PM PST by Petronski (In Germany they came first for the Communists, And I didn't speak up because I wasn't a Communist...)
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To: Cap'n Crunch

Here’s a link to wikipedia, prayers for the dead. Jewish, tradition, protestant, etc.
Thats prayers for the dead, not prayers TO the dead.

Big difference there, Tex.


86 posted on 02/20/2010 3:11:27 PM PST by Cyclops08
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To: Cap'n Crunch

Men wrote down the scriptures. Catholic men.

Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha! Ha!

No silly. Men filled with the Holy Spirit wrote the Bible.
The early church did not call itself catholic and there was no pope.


87 posted on 02/20/2010 3:18:05 PM PST by Cyclops08
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To: Cap'n Crunch
Martin Luther believed...etc.

Again, Luther WAS a Catholic. From: lcms.org

Lutherans today are not bound to Luther's personal views regarding how this was accomplished; in any event, it is clear from Luther's other and later writings on Mary that he did not hold to the view that Mary was personally devoid of all sin (which would mean that she would have had no need of forgiveness or salvation). Luther also held to the semper virgo (the perpetual virginity) of Mary. This, again, is a personal view to which Lutherans today are not bound. Scripture is not clear on this matter, and Lutherans do not regard it as a theological issue.

The Lutheran Confessions aren't based upon what ML believed but upon what Scripture says.

88 posted on 02/20/2010 3:22:07 PM PST by xone
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To: Cap'n Crunch

“So then, brethren, stand firm and hold to the traditions which you were taught by us, either by word of mouth or by letter.” (2 Thess. 2:15)

This is NOT an excuse to just make stuff up. If prayer to the saints was a doctrine from God, then He would have told us so in His Word.

As it stands, you have failed. You cannot show any scripture where people have prayed to the deceased. Instead you must twist scripture around to enable corruptible men to add to the Word of God.

Men do not have that power. If this verse was true you would be defending the sales of indulgences.

Traditions like prayers to the saints are from satan himself. Doctrines of demons.

I would only hope you someday venerate the Bible as much as you revere man-made tradition.

As you have failed to provide scriptural evidence, then I win this argument.


89 posted on 02/20/2010 3:27:37 PM PST by Cyclops08
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To: bogusname
These apparitions are not from God.

Yes, they are, my son!

90 posted on 02/20/2010 3:28:33 PM PST by Revolting cat! (Let us prey!)
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To: Revolting cat!

“These apparitions are not from God.

Yes, they are, my son!”

No they are not. Can you provide a single biblical example where God used a dead person to reveal divine revelation?

You can’t. God has always reserved that for Himself.
Look at the parable of the rich man and the poor man. The rich man (in hell) asked Abraham to send the poor man to warn his brothers. Abraham said, no. They have the prophets, if they do not believe them, neither would they believe should a man return from the dead.

This Marian apparition is a satanic deception. end of story.


91 posted on 02/20/2010 3:46:32 PM PST by Cyclops08
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To: Cyclops08

Jeez, it’s so easy to yank the chain of you Protesters!


92 posted on 02/20/2010 4:03:18 PM PST by Revolting cat! (Let us prey!)
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To: Cyclops08

I agree...thanks for your good opst.


93 posted on 02/20/2010 4:32:31 PM PST by Marysecretary (GOD IS STILL IN CONTROL!)
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To: Cyclops08

I’ve showed them, you’ve rejected them.

‘You cannot show any scripture where people have prayed to the deceased’

When Jesus was transfigured and speaking to Moses and Elijah, hadn’t Moses been dead for awhile? Does that count as someone who was dead conversing with someone who was living? Isn’t that in the bible? And Elijah, taken up to heaven, was he then appearing to Christ at the transfiguration?

Two perfect examples, from scripture, right there. Moses, who was dead, speaking with Christ. Elijah, taken up to heaven, appearing on earth with Christ.

?


94 posted on 02/20/2010 4:48:07 PM PST by Cap'n Crunch (Rush Limbaugh, the Winston Churchill of our time)
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To: caww

Anyone opening the New Testament for the first time will find a book that does not attempt a systematic explication of the Gospel, but is a collections of writings loosely related. It alluded to people and events unknown to us. We do not find the names of the authors of of many of these texts in the writings themselves. It cries out for an authoritative interpreter, so that we must say with the Ethyiopian encountered by the deacon Phillip. “How shall I know what this means unless someone interpret it.” We do know by reading it that there is something called the Church. We do know from history that the Catholic Church has existed since that time, has a history that you deride. We do know that Protestant bodies have existed for less than 500 of those years and have a history of their own, with what Catholics can claim, inventions of their own,” in addition to the ones that stand in direct opposition to papal authority, and which cannot be traced back to the time of Christ.


95 posted on 02/20/2010 4:50:12 PM PST by RobbyS (Pray with the suffering souls.)
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To: Cyclops08

“The Only truth is in the Bible.” How do you know this? The Statement is certainly not in the Bible. In any case, we say that what is in the Bible is tradition—that which is handed down—because Jesus did not write it, and only tradition tells us who did.


96 posted on 02/20/2010 5:02:10 PM PST by RobbyS (Pray with the suffering souls.)
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To: xone

Of course it does. It depends on Luther’s approach to Scripture, his point of view which was adopted by his disciples.


97 posted on 02/20/2010 5:04:02 PM PST by RobbyS (Pray with the suffering souls.)
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To: Cap'n Crunch

“When Jesus was transfigured and speaking to Moses and Elijah, hadn’t Moses been dead for awhile? Does that count as someone who was dead conversing with someone who was living? Isn’t that in the bible? And Elijah, taken up to heaven, was he then appearing to Christ at the transfiguration?”

No. No one PRAYED to Moses or Elijah. No one has since.
The two men were physically THERE. They did not intercede for Jesus and God.

You still FAIL. There is NO account of people praying to the deceased in the Bible.

this is why people reject Catholicism. You cannot support your claims with scripture.


98 posted on 02/20/2010 5:04:14 PM PST by Cyclops08
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To: RobbyS

“The Only truth is in the Bible.” How do you know this? The Statement is certainly not in the Bible. In any case, we say that what is in the Bible is tradition—that which is handed down—because Jesus did not write it, and only tradition tells us who did.”

WRONG.
Why do you diminish the power of God? God INSPIRED the Bible. God wrote through men. God divinely protected and kept The record of His word exactly as he wants it.

If tradition is not represented in scripture, it is of satan, not God.


99 posted on 02/20/2010 5:07:31 PM PST by Cyclops08
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To: Cyclops08

You assume that the Saints are dead to this world and indifferent to our concerns. Does death cut the living off from the dead? Are we no longer in communion with those who have gone to sleep in the Lord? Does your mother stop being your mother when she dies? If she can pray for you in this life, cannot she pray for you and those who remain on earth?


100 posted on 02/20/2010 5:09:08 PM PST by RobbyS (Pray with the suffering souls.)
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