Yet this "state of being" entails a certain length of time, terrible suffering - according to certain Popes, grief, sorrow, torture like as Hell - but without actually having a physical body with which to experience it, and, if you were wearing a brown scapula during your earth years, Mary can "spring" you early, on Saturdays, only.
This really speaks to the inanity of what some "church fathers" tried to reason out without the clear authority of Holy Scripture and a remarkable inability to understand and appreciate that the cross of Christ is our "place of cleansing" from ALL sin.
It is also telling that this dogma did not even become such until the sixteenth century (Council of Trent). The only real verse they could use is from a Dueterocanonical book - Maccabees - which was not accepted Scripture - probably because of this very excerpt which contradicts clear Scriptural doctrine about being "Absent from the body, present WITH the Lord" and "the blood of Jesus Christ CLEANSES us from all sin.
This post gets slipped in every now and again. I think I've seen about four or five times now since I have been on FR. Why? Just wanting to start another Catholic/Protestant war of words for something to do on a Friday night? Is this a test for anyone who claims the label of Catholic to prove their allegiance by nodding their heads to yet another infallible proclamation?
**Maccabees - which was not accepted Scripture **
Not in the Protestant Bible
But in the Catholic Bible. Luther took it out for this very reason.
Not trying to start any Protestant vs. Catholics feud here. One thread on Purgatory got locked because of behavior like that.
Just looking at the Scripture alone — makes one stop and think about the reality of a Purgatory.
You can leave the Early Church Fathers out of it — although I posted their views here too. Just looke at the Scripture.
Purgatory is referred to in other places besides Macabbees.
When you look at this post with all the Scripture Maccabees is mentioned only once. Look at the other Scripture! Or is it changed in KJV>?