[AnAmericanMother]

Just a drive-by comment . . .

673. "Since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection." Nowhere in Scripture do we find that by man and woman came the resurrection.

This ignores both the Greek and the meaning of the 17th c. English translation. The Greek in 1st Corinthians 15:21 is "anthropos" which does not mean a human being of the male sex, but ALL human beings ("anir" is the Greek for a man as distinct from a woman). And in the 17th c. (and more recently) "man" was analogous to "anthropos" although English is a bit confusing because it doesn't make the distinction made in Greek.

[GonzoII]

"Just a drive-by comment . . ."

Thanks for the input.

[maryz]

although English is a bit confusing because it doesn't make the distinction made in Greek.

Actually, Old English did -- unfortunately, the distinction depended only on vowel length: man with a short vowel was "adult male"; man(n) with a long vowel was "human being."