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To: metmom; RnMomof7; annalex
If the works of the Law, which are from God, cannot save, what on earth makes people think that the works THEY decide on, the works which are from men, can save?

I think that is an excellent question!

5,743 posted on 12/22/2010 11:39:33 PM PST by boatbums (God is ready to assume full responsibility for the life wholly yielded to him.)
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To: boatbums

Indeed. I posted on this is in
http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/religion/2618333/posts?page=5661#5661, but if i could reiterate and expand as things slow down.

Seeking to justify salvation by the grace of God thru merit, it is taught that such statements as “a man is not justified by the works of the law” (Gal. 2:16a) is only excluding works of the law versus works of faith as gaining justification before God, as if two types of works were what are contrasted. However, that is manifestly not what is being distinguished, rather works versus faith is what is separated as regards what the actual basis for justification is, “that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ.”

Other texts do not mention “works of the law,” but simply say “works,” (Eph. 2:8,9; 2Tim. 1:9) showing that it is not by “works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us,” (Titus 3:5)

To be sure, the only manner of faith which is true and thus salvific faith is that which orders one’s life, as one cannot truly believe in the Lord Jesus without being moved to obey Him, and repent when convicted of failure to do so.

But rather than making works of the law inferior to works of faith, Paul affirms that the law is good, and that “if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law.” (Gal. 3:21)

Moreover, the righteousness of the law is not abrogated, rather it is what those who live by faith are to fulfil. (Rm. 8:4)

And in making the distinction between vain belief and true faith, he further states, “For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified,” (Rm. 2:13) And thus when teaching on what actually justifies in cp. 4, he uses Abraham as the example.

And while the believer is not being “under the law, but under grace,” (Rm. 6:14) this does not refer to a life ungoverned by moral standards, as the basic moral laws of the O.T. are clearly upheld, along with teachings complementary to it being added, and a covenantal distinction made between that class and ceremonial law. But it refers to being saved by faith in the mercy of God in Christ, trusting Him for salvation by His blood and righteousness, rather than supposing one merits salvation it by full obedience to the law, as the inability to keep it perfectly actually shows man his need for mercy and the atonement. (Rm. 3,4)

It also means the moral life of the believer is governed not by looking at the letter of the law as his standard, or by seeking to justify himself thereby, but by a relationship with the law-giver, looking unto Jesus who kept the law in its full intent, and thru faith in whom the believer gains an acceptance which he could not achieve by confidence in his own righteousness, so that those who are led by His Spirit can grow towards the same.

May i and we do so more, and recover any lost ground where applicable.


5,754 posted on 12/23/2010 10:56:10 AM PST by daniel1212 ( "Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out," Acts 3:19)
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To: boatbums
excellent question!

I answered that a few minutes ago and if you did not see the answer, it is a few posts of mine above.

6,397 posted on 01/01/2011 8:28:28 PM PST by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
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