I may be wrong, but didn’t the Bible mention that Joseph didn’t (or was prohibited to) have relations with Mary until after Jesus was born?
Mat 1:24 When Joseph woke from sleep, he did as the angel of the Lord commanded him: he took his wife,
Mat 1:25 but knew her not until she had given birth to a son. And he called his name Jesus.
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As you mention Boop, it does say the word “UNITL”. The obvious assumption from this text is that after the birth of Christ, this prohibition was lifted. At least that is the interpretation that most reasonable people would assume.
If I were to make a statement to a classroom that you cannot eat until three o’clock, everyone in the room would understand that to mean that they can eat after three o’clock.
Obvious.