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To: NYer
No married man may be ordained a bishop.

Of course, the Catholic Church can impose whatever requirements it wishes upon its adherents, but how do they square the requirement listed above with 1 Timothy 3:2?

"A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, temperate, sober-minded, of good behavior, hospitable, able to teach;"

19 posted on 10/10/2011 1:48:03 PM PDT by CA Conservative (Texan by birth, Californian by circumstance)
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To: CA Conservative
1 Tim clearly states that first the bishop must be blameless. He should be at most a husband of one wife (not multiple wives) -- there is no criteria that if he does not have a wife its bad, also what happens if the bishop is a widow? No, 1 Tim 3:2 is not negated -- also look at this in contrast to 1 tim 3:12 "Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife" -- in contrast to 1 tim 3:2 "a bishop then must be blameless , the husband of..."

1 tim 3:4 says One that ruleth well his own house, having his children in subjection with all gravity; -- so, if his children as unruly and not in subjection, should he then resign?

57 posted on 10/10/2011 11:57:29 PM PDT by Cronos (http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/religion/2787101/posts?page=58#58)
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