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How can a man be the husband of 2 wives if the 1st wife was put away for adultery? (Mt. 5)?
1/28/2013 | Laissez-Faire Capitalist

Posted on 01/28/2013 10:46:27 AM PST by Laissez-faire capitalist

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To: BJ1; stuartcr

Perhaps we could rephrase the question as “How close can I get to the sin without being guilty?” Or maybe “How far can I get from my wife without it being actual adultery?”

Seems to me that’s the very point Jesus was addressing - that the problem is found in the question.


41 posted on 01/29/2013 7:58:30 AM PST by LearsFool ("Thou shouldst not have been old, till thou hadst been wise.")
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To: cuban leaf
She got caught up in a program called “Learning to live, Learning to love” that created some real problems. Actually, she and four other women her age and long term married divorced their husbands within the same two year time span, all using the same attorney. It’s actually a fascinating story.

Sounds like she was in a program that was run by a feminist, where they indoctrinate the women in the idea that they "can do better" than their current relationship. Then the women (particularly after 40) discover that they can't, and then themselves become bitter feminists.

Did your wife find a new husband?

42 posted on 01/29/2013 8:02:16 AM PST by PapaBear3625 (You don't notice it's a police state until the police come for you.)
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To: PapaBear3625

Did your wife find a new husband?


Nope. She’s just gone from boyfriend to boyfriend. Apparently she fights pretty incessantly with each one. However, all the boyfriends have one thing in common: They are her lap dog during the relationship.

Learning to live, Learning to love is not a bad program in the way a hammer is not bad at pounding in nails. Problem is that when you try to use it as a saw, a screwdriver or sander, it kinda sucks. It can do more harm than good (obviously). The program should ONLY be used with relationships that are physically abusive.

It was also taught by lay-people. After one session, the leader took me in the hall and told me he was very concerned about me supressing memories about certain events in my childhood (spanking, parental arguments, etc.). He had me very concerned as well - until I talked to my mother and got the full skinny. There was nothing to supress. She remembered, independently, the same single event I remembered.

Ah, but I am getting us into the weeds. It’s old news. Like WWII. I moved on and love my current relationship more than I ever thought it was possible.

Chick films are NOT science fiction. That stuff actually happens. It did with my wife and me.


43 posted on 01/29/2013 8:14:48 AM PST by cuban leaf (Were doomed! Details at eleven.)
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To: LearsFool

So how do you get ‘marriage is a requirement for bishops’? Out of that. It’s not and never has been.


44 posted on 01/29/2013 1:57:22 PM PST by JCBreckenridge (Texas is a state of mind - Steinbeck)
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To: cuban leaf

Simple - it ought not to have been done to you because that’s contrary to what Christian marriage ought to be. The same ban that would prevent you from remarrying would be the same ban that would prevent her from divorcing you in the first place.

That’s where the problem arises. Sure, the pastor can provide you small comforts by offering you remarriage, but they are also the ones sanctioning divorce in the first place.


45 posted on 01/29/2013 1:59:27 PM PST by JCBreckenridge (Texas is a state of mind - Steinbeck)
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To: BJ1

“I think we should judge actions.”

Are you Jesus? Like the Rock says, “It doesn’t matter what you think”.

Jesus is very clear - the man who looks upon a woman in lust has committed adultery with her in his heart.


46 posted on 01/29/2013 2:02:08 PM PST by JCBreckenridge (Texas is a state of mind - Steinbeck)
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To: JCBreckenridge

The requirements for bishops can be found in 1 Timothy 3.


47 posted on 01/29/2013 2:24:27 PM PST by LearsFool ("Thou shouldst not have been old, till thou hadst been wise.")
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To: LearsFool

Yet Paul himself was unmarried. So bishops can be unmarried too.


48 posted on 01/29/2013 2:27:47 PM PST by JCBreckenridge (Texas is a state of mind - Steinbeck)
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To: JCBreckenridge
Yet Paul himself was unmarried. So bishops can be unmarried too.

Not sure I'm following you. Are you saying that since he, Paul, was unmarried that this somehow invalidates his instructions to Timothy (and Titus) regarding the qualifications of bishops? Please elaborate.
49 posted on 01/29/2013 4:08:10 PM PST by LearsFool ("Thou shouldst not have been old, till thou hadst been wise.")
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To: LearsFool

I’m saying that you’ve incorrectly interpreted his instructions as barring unmarried men from becoming bishops. Paul himself was unmarried, ergo, unmarried men could no more be barred from becoming Bishops than if Paul were to step down himself.


50 posted on 01/29/2013 5:05:02 PM PST by JCBreckenridge (Texas is a state of mind - Steinbeck)
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To: JCBreckenridge

Paul needn’t have stepped down from his office. The qualifications of apostleship are not the same as those of bishopric.

Paul wasn’t a husband, yet his instructions to husbands in Ephesians are still from God. He wasn’t a wife either, yet he gave instructions to wives. He needn’t be a bishop for his instructions regarding them to be understood and obeyed.

As for “interpreting his instructions”...I’m merely reading the plain language.

As I posted earlier, “the husband of one wife” could have one of two possible meanings. But there’s one meaning it can’t have, and that’s “the husband of NO wife”. Otherwise Paul is speaking nonsense.


51 posted on 01/29/2013 5:50:52 PM PST by LearsFool ("Thou shouldst not have been old, till thou hadst been wise.")
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To: LearsFool

“The qualifications of apostleship are not the same as those of bishopric.”

Indeed, the qualifications for apostleship are superior.

“Paul wasn’t a husband, yet his instructions to husbands in Ephesians are still from God. He wasn’t a wife either, yet he gave instructions to wives. He needn’t be a bishop for his instructions regarding them to be understood and obeyed.”

He could instruct the bishops because his authority was superior to them. Ergo, if the superior position permits unmarried men, then so should the inferior one.

“As I posted earlier, “the husband of one wife” could have one of two possible meanings. But there’s one meaning it can’t have, and that’s “the husband of NO wife”. Otherwise Paul is speaking nonsense.”

The husband of but one wife - if you are married, you can only have one. It does not say that marriage is required. Don’t you think that Paul would have made it explicitly clear, if this were, in fact the case, by saying “unmarried men are forbidden to enter the episcopy?”

1 Corinthians 7:32-3 is very clear. Paul argues for the superiority of celibacy over the married life.

“One who is unmarried is concerned about the things of the Lord, how he may please the Lord; but one who is married is concerned about the things of the world, how he may please his wife, and his interests are divided.”

Now, how can one read this and reach the conclusion that marriage is required for the episcopy?


52 posted on 01/29/2013 6:04:37 PM PST by JCBreckenridge (Texas is a state of mind - Steinbeck)
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To: JCBreckenridge
Now, how can one read this and reach the conclusion that marriage is required for the episcopy?

Why, nobody can. If you want to know the qualifications of a bishop, you'll have to look elsewhere - some place that lays out those qualifications.

He could instruct the bishops because his authority was superior to them.

No, my FRiend, he could instruct the bishops (or rather, Timothy and Titus and, through his letters, all of us) because he was speaking for Jesus. (After all, it is His flocks, not Paul's, which are to be shepherded by these bishops.) It is the inspiration from God which gives authority to Paul's instructions, whether to husbands, wives, children, evangelists such as Timothy and Titus, or churches to whom he wrote.

Ergo, if the superior position permits unmarried men, then so should the inferior one.

Where can I find that in the Bible? Cite the Scripture and that'll settle the matter.
53 posted on 01/29/2013 6:45:46 PM PST by LearsFool ("Thou shouldst not have been old, till thou hadst been wise.")
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To: JCBreckenridge

[Are you Jesus? Like the Rock says, “It doesn’t matter what you think”.

Jesus is very clear - the man who looks upon a woman in lust has committed adultery with her in his heart.]

You are not taking this comment in the proper context. stuartcr and I have been chatting about grounds for divorce/remarriage. I’m not arguing that having lust in your heart (but not acting on it) is not a sin. But I don’t think its the same as actually committing adultery: It is not grounds for a divorce to simply have lust in your heart imo.


54 posted on 01/29/2013 9:41:13 PM PST by BJ1
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To: LearsFool

“Now, how can one read this and reach the conclusion that marriage is required for the episcopy?”

“Why, nobody can.”

Then this issue is settled, by Paul himself.

“No, my FRiend, he could instruct the bishops (or rather, Timothy and Titus and, through his letters, all of us) because he was speaking for Jesus.”

So you deny that the Apostles were given authority, by Jesus, over the Church? Jesus himself gave this authority to them.

“Where can I find that in the Bible? Cite the Scripture and that’ll settle the matter.”

I might ask you the same. Cite the scripture forbidding unmarried men as Bishops.


55 posted on 01/29/2013 9:44:32 PM PST by JCBreckenridge (Texas is a state of mind - Steinbeck)
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To: BJ1

“It is not grounds for a divorce to simply have lust in your heart imo.”

Ah. Forgive me then. For sinning, yes it doesn’t matter. For divorce, requires the act of will. And even then - divorce is still the decision of the faithful party, not of the adulterer. If the faithful party chooses to forgive, then the adulterer is bound.


56 posted on 01/29/2013 9:46:40 PM PST by JCBreckenridge (Texas is a state of mind - Steinbeck)
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