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1 posted on 01/28/2013 10:46:39 AM PST by Laissez-faire capitalist
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To: Laissez-faire capitalist; All

I was just wondering how the Assemblies of God, Baptists, etc, came to their current teaching on this.

Any input appreciated...

Thanks.


2 posted on 01/28/2013 10:48:17 AM PST by Laissez-faire capitalist
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To: Laissez-faire capitalist

Jesus also said (Matthew chapter 5) that a man (or woman) may put away their mate for marital unfaithfulness and remarry.


Actually, it doesn’t say that. It says that for any reason other than that he makes her an adulterer. That is because in that case she has already made herself one.


3 posted on 01/28/2013 10:49:12 AM PST by cuban leaf (Were doomed! Details at eleven.)
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To: Laissez-faire capitalist

BTW, my first wife, after 20 years, divorced me because she was just tired of being married. I remarried. The woman had been divorced. That was 15 years ago and I’m in marital bliss the likes of which I didn’t know was possible.

But where does that leave me, scripturally? Do you know how many “non divorced” 40 something women there are? And by marrying, we prevented “burning”.


4 posted on 01/28/2013 10:53:16 AM PST by cuban leaf (Were doomed! Details at eleven.)
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To: Laissez-faire capitalist
may put away their mate for marital unfaithfulness

The actual term from the Greek is porneia - which is not semantically equivalent to "marital unfaithfulness.

7 posted on 01/28/2013 11:20:58 AM PST by wideawake
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To: Laissez-faire capitalist

In our Catholic bible it is understood as “unlawfull” not unfaithful. Unfaithfull to Jews at the time would have been a marriage in the same family.

Marriage is a covenant with God. Divorce will never be good, no matter what the circumstances. Obviously people prefer to do whatever they feel like, as opposed to what God wants.

King Henry the 8th, separated from the Catholic church and formed the Anglican church so he could remarry. Maybe that is where the wording changed.


9 posted on 01/28/2013 11:27:52 AM PST by mgist
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To: Laissez-faire capitalist
In light of this, since Jesus sanctioned the remarriage, and would not consider the former mate to be the man's wife any longer, this man can be a bishop/overseer (1 Tim Chapter 3)

Depends on what Paul means by "the husband of one wife"...

- Is he saying "having had only one wife"?

- Or is he saying "currently having only one wife"?

(One thing's for sure: He's not saying "the husband of NO wife", as some claim bishops should be.)
21 posted on 01/28/2013 2:27:23 PM PST by LearsFool ("Thou shouldst not have been old, till thou hadst been wise.")
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To: Laissez-faire capitalist

I believe he would just have to qualify on the verses below,
But when two people marrys it is supposed to be for life and that takes a lot of forgiveness even under the best of circumstances, and how many times does jesus tell us to forgive?

1 This is a true saying, If a man desire the office of a bishop, he desireth a good work.

2 A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;

3 Not given to wine, no striker, not greedy of filthy lucre; but patient, not a brawler, not covetous;

4 One that ruleth well his own house, having his children in subjection with all gravity;

5 (For if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take care of the church of God?)


22 posted on 01/28/2013 3:45:01 PM PST by ravenwolf
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