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Why wasn't Mary's sin passed on to Jesus?
The Orthodox Presbyterian Church ^

Posted on 07/29/2013 7:55:48 AM PDT by Gamecock

Question:

A non-Christian asked if we teach that Jesus was sinless because he did not have a human father, wasn't his human mother, Mary, sinful? Why wasn't her sin passed on to her son, Jesus?

Answer:

You ask an important question about the sinlessness and perfection of Jesus Christ.

As you suggest, if there is any way in which Christ partakes of sin, he is disqualified from being the only redeemer of God’s elect (Westminster Shorter Catechism, Q. 21). The testimony of Scripture about this is clear. Hebrews says that Christ was tempted in all points as we are, yet without sinning (Heb. 4:15). Christ challenged his adversaries to prove that he had sinned and they could not (John 8:46). As the apostle Paul put it, “For our sake he made him [Christ] to be sin, who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God” (2 Cor. 5:21, cf. 1 Pet. 2:22, 1 John 3:5). He is a high priest unlike any other who is “holy, innocent, unstained, separated from sinners, and exalted above the heavens” (Heb. 7:26). His title as the Lamb of God (John 1:29) also draws our attention to his innocence.

The early church thought deeply about this as it formulated clear statements about Jesus Christ having two natures, a divine nature and a human nature, yet being one person. Christ unites in himself uniquely and in an unrepeatable way, this union (called the hypostatic union) of the human and the divine. This is the mystery of the Incarnation that the creeds of the church confess.

The way in which God answers your question is in the mystery of the virgin birth. The Scriptures begin from, what one theologian terms, “above” (Donald Macleod). John 1 or Philippians 2 show this movement from the eternal Son of God to the incarnate Son of God. This is how the Westminster Shorter Catechism summarizes it:

Christ, the Son of God, became man, by taking to himself a true body and a reasonable soul, being conceived by the power of the Holy Ghost, in the womb of the Virgin Mary, and born of her, yet without sin. (Q. 22)

As Matthew described it, Mary was found to be with child from the Holy Spirit (1:18), and then the angel explained it to Joseph: “that which is conceived in her [Mary] is from the Holy Spirit” (1:20). The explanation to Mary herself, in response to her “How will this be, since I am a virgin?” (Luke 1:34), leaves any human agency out of the incarnation in the normal way of conception, for the angel tells Mary, “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; therefore, the child to be born will be called ‘holy’—the Son of God” (Luke 1:35). Without further description of how this would occur, the Bible testifies that the Holy Spirit overshadowed Mary (the same idea as the cloud which overshadowed the Mount of Transfiguration) in such a way that she indeed became the bearer of the Holy One of God (Gal. 4:4); and her offspring, Jesus Christ, remained without sin. God does not specify in greater detail than this how the conception of Jesus by-passed Mary’s own sinfulness to preserve Christ’s sinlessness, but the rest of Scripture, as I indicated above, affirms that Christ did not inherit our sin nature. He came to be the Second Adam (Rom. 5) who could forgive sins because he himself was both the One offended and himself sinless.

The glory of the grace found in Jesus Christ is that though he was without sin, yet he had pity upon sinners so as to die in their place while we were enemies, ungodly, and sinful (Rom. 5:6, 8, 10). We need a Savior who is fully human to bear patiently with us, yet is able to atone for our sin as the final and perfect sacrifice. The sinlessness of Christ makes a passage like Isaiah 53:9–11 so marvelous in that Christ had no deceit in his mouth and by his death he made many to be accounted righteous.

I hope this is of some help.


TOPICS: Apologetics; General Discusssion
KEYWORDS: jesus; mary
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1 posted on 07/29/2013 7:55:48 AM PDT by Gamecock
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To: Gamecock

Because she was full of grace.


2 posted on 07/29/2013 7:56:32 AM PDT by Biggirl (“Go, do not be afraid, and serve”-Pope Francis)
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To: Alex Murphy; Greetings_Puny_Humans; metmom

A wonderful read void of any of the hocus-pocus found in Brand-X.


3 posted on 07/29/2013 7:57:28 AM PDT by Gamecock (Member: NAACAC)
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To: Biggirl

No.

But we have lovely parting gifts.


4 posted on 07/29/2013 7:57:55 AM PDT by Gamecock (Member: NAACAC)
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To: Gamecock

or was Jesus the son of a Roman soldier ?


5 posted on 07/29/2013 7:59:46 AM PDT by molson209
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To: Gamecock

I do disagree with you.


6 posted on 07/29/2013 8:00:15 AM PDT by Biggirl (“Go, do not be afraid, and serve”-Pope Francis)
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To: molson209

That’s crazy talk!


7 posted on 07/29/2013 8:01:47 AM PDT by Gamecock (Member: NAACAC)
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To: Biggirl; Gamecock

Why weren’t Mary’s parents’ sin passed on to Mary?


8 posted on 07/29/2013 8:01:51 AM PDT by Alex Murphy ("...Someone handed the keys to the Forum to the OPC and its sympathizers...")
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To: Gamecock
The Immaculate Conception
9 posted on 07/29/2013 8:02:08 AM PDT by eCSMaster (Palin was right (again)!)
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To: Gamecock

Mary was the Immaculate Conception. Born without Original Sin. Not Jesus. He was born Divine. And I don’t want to hear different from people on who to Close Cover Before Striking Illinois based “Theology” schools.


10 posted on 07/29/2013 8:02:09 AM PDT by massgopguy (I owe everything to George Bailey)
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To: Biggirl

So do the angels and Luke’s Gospel.


11 posted on 07/29/2013 8:02:32 AM PDT by Bayard
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To: Gamecock
if we teach that Jesus was sinless because he did not have a human father

Jesus is sinless because he is God. Not having a human father has nothing to do with it. "Brand Y" is confused, muddled, and dabbling with heterodox Christology, as usual.

12 posted on 07/29/2013 8:04:21 AM PDT by Campion ("Social justice" begins in the womb)
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To: massgopguy
Mary was the Immaculate Conception.

Shouldn't that read: "Mary was the product of the Immaculate Conception"?

Regards,

13 posted on 07/29/2013 8:06:42 AM PDT by alexander_busek (Extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence.)
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To: Bayard

The angels are pure spirits.


14 posted on 07/29/2013 8:08:38 AM PDT by Biggirl (“Go, do not be afraid, and serve”-Pope Francis)
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To: Gamecock

Thus the Catholic concept of “Immaculate Conception”.

(often misconstrued as meaning Mary conceived without having relations with a man, actually refers to the fact that she herself was conceived without sin)


15 posted on 07/29/2013 8:09:56 AM PDT by Buckeye McFrog
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To: Gamecock

This is a great way to spend time

Talking about things we CAN’T POSSIBLY KNOW as if it makes a difference


16 posted on 07/29/2013 8:11:10 AM PDT by Mr. K (4 election)
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To: alexander_busek

“Mary was the Immaculate Conception.”

I don’t recall reading anywhere about anything special about Mary’s conception.


17 posted on 07/29/2013 8:12:12 AM PDT by DonaldC (A nation cannot stand in the absence of religious principle.)
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To: alexander_busek

Mary herself is believed to have been conceived without sin. That is the immaculate conception.

I believe.


18 posted on 07/29/2013 8:12:18 AM PDT by Williams (No Obama)
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To: Gamecock
Why wasn't Mary's sin passed on to Jesus?

what is Immaculate Conception for $300, Alex

I hate when people over think things

19 posted on 07/29/2013 8:12:48 AM PDT by Revelation 911 (hump scratching n'er do well.....all strung out on chicken wings and venison jerky)
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To: Gamecock
God does not specify in greater detail than this how the conception of Jesus by-passed Mary’s own sinfulness to preserve Christ’s sinlessness

So, from the Reformed perspective, there is no explanation.

It just is.

20 posted on 07/29/2013 8:13:11 AM PDT by wideawake
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To: Gamecock
I hope this is of some help.

It's not, really, since it fails to answer the question. The question was "Why wasn't Mary's sin passed on to Jesus?"

While this exposition of scripture accurately reflects basic christian doctrine, it would be wholly unsatisfactory an answer to any non-christian.

The only answer to the question one can draw from this is "because it wasn't."

21 posted on 07/29/2013 8:13:30 AM PDT by trad_anglican
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To: Gamecock

It’s still BREATHTAKING!


22 posted on 07/29/2013 8:14:01 AM PDT by bandleader
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To: DonaldC

There is no biblical basis for the immaculate conception of anyone other than Jesus. In fact, in her beautiful song of faith, the Magnificat, she says, “And my spirit has rejoiced in God, my Savior.” Were she without sin, she would not need a savior.


23 posted on 07/29/2013 8:17:29 AM PDT by txrefugee
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To: Gamecock
Perhaps God, in His infinite wisdom, who gave His Son Jesus Christ two natures, a divine nature and a human nature ... solved this important question with the Immaculate Conception.
24 posted on 07/29/2013 8:17:46 AM PDT by Servant of the Cross (the Truth will set you free)
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To: Biggirl; All

Mary’s “grace” was not the issue. Mary was a virgin .. which was key.

However, the reason Jesus was “sinless” at birth was because of the “BLOOD” flowing in his veins.

It is a medical FACT that the blood of the FATHER is passed to the child. Therefore, Jesus blood was of his FATHER, and not of his mother.

If you go back and look at the history of Jewish sacrifices, you will note that it was always the “blood” of the animals that was important .. meaning that the animal had to be pure and spotless or their blood was not considered pure enough for the sacrifice.

Jesus is our “sacrifice” .. and therefore his BLOOD had to be pure and spotless.


25 posted on 07/29/2013 8:20:00 AM PDT by CyberAnt (AMERICA: "... I'm terrified it's slipping away")
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To: CyberAnt

I was talking about it from a “spiritual sense”.


26 posted on 07/29/2013 8:22:16 AM PDT by Biggirl (“Go, do not be afraid, and serve”-Pope Francis)
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To: txrefugee
Were she without sin, she would not need a savior.

Maybe she didn't know that...

27 posted on 07/29/2013 8:22:35 AM PDT by Mannaggia l'America
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To: Mr. K

I agree though I have heard it theorized that Mary was used as a surrogate (a vessel) to hold the Holy Child until birth and literallly contributed no genes since he was Holy and she was not.


28 posted on 07/29/2013 8:24:01 AM PDT by Char100
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To: Campion

Campion:

The Christological problems with many of the FR Prots shows its head again. Christ is eternally begotten of the Father, hence His Divine Nature by definition is sinless. He was incarnate of the Virgin Mary so Christ the Eternal Word of The Father is incarnate of the Virgin Mary and becomes Man. THus in that context, we now understand Christ, the 2nd Person of the Most Holy Trinity as a 1) Divine Person with 2 Natures. These 2 Natures are 1) Divine, which is sinless as Christ is Truly God and 2)Human Nature, which he received from Mary, thus the question now remains, how was Christ the perfect Man with respect to his Human Nature.

Christ as the 2nd Adam is the perfect man, his human nature is what God wanted for Man before the Fall. Thus, God in his infinite wisdom chose Mary as the perfect ark or vessel through which Christ would become incarnate. The Immaculate Conception thus speaks of “GOD” acting in a power way in Mary’s life and giving her an abundance of Grace as the Old Douay Rheims translation puts is “And the Angel said to her: Hail Full of Grace, the Lord is with thee, blessed are thou among women......Fear Not Mary, for thou has found Grace with God” [cf Luke 1:28-30].

So in what context does Mary have God’s grace before CHrist’s passion, death and resurrection, it is because God can work outside of time and the benefits of CHrist death and resurrection were given to Mary so that her will conformed to God’s will and she became God’s instrument in the plan of salvation in that Christ became incarnate of her. Mary’s being in a state of Grace if why Christ “human nature” was not tainted with original sin and the author of Mary being in state of Grace is God working in a mysterious way to provide Mary with said Grace.

Lots of Nestorian heresy here among the FR Protestant brigades.


29 posted on 07/29/2013 8:25:04 AM PDT by CTrent1564
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To: txrefugee

“...no biblical basis...”

The fact that Mary is full of grace is in the bible. Jesus required an immaculate (sinless) vessel for his Divine Nature. Mary required a savior - she was “saved” in advance so her vessel was pure - she is prefigured by the ark of the covenant in the OT.

The state of being full of grace = having been saved.


30 posted on 07/29/2013 8:25:44 AM PDT by stonehouse01 (Equal rights for unborn women)
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To: alexander_busek
"I am the Immaculate Conception."

Regards,

31 posted on 07/29/2013 8:27:03 AM PDT by Servant of the Cross (the Truth will set you free)
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To: Biggirl

The two angels who visited Lot and his family were incarnate.


32 posted on 07/29/2013 8:27:17 AM PDT by RoosterRedux (Liberals' first line of defense is emotion...the fall back position is specious reasoning.)
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To: RoosterRedux

But still, angels are pure spirits.


33 posted on 07/29/2013 8:29:40 AM PDT by Biggirl (“Go, do not be afraid, and serve”-Pope Francis)
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To: Char100

“...contributed no genes...”

The hypostatic union means that Jesus has two complete natures, one fully human and one fully divine - his genes are from Mary.

Various corruptions and misunderstandings of the true nature of Christ have led to many heresies, including such as Mormonism, Jeohvah witness, Islam, etc., that do not recoginize Jesus’ divine nature. The Arian heresy was one of the first to get this wrong - and then Mary’s role is misunderstood when Christ’s nature is not understood correctly.


34 posted on 07/29/2013 8:31:25 AM PDT by stonehouse01 (Equal rights for unborn women)
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To: CyberAnt

But Bible is “quiet” about that aspect, about the blood.


35 posted on 07/29/2013 8:31:32 AM PDT by Biggirl (“Go, do not be afraid, and serve”-Pope Francis)
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To: Biggirl
Oops. I misunderstood.

I read your statement as "only" spirit. And you mean they are "pure" in spirit.

And that is true except for the Fallen Ones.

36 posted on 07/29/2013 8:32:46 AM PDT by RoosterRedux (Liberals' first line of defense is emotion...the fall back position is specious reasoning.)
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To: CTrent1564
Mary’s being in a state of Grace is why Christ “human nature” was not tainted with original sin

While I certainly agree with the IC, and agree that it was entirely fitting for God to have caused Mary to be conceived immaculately, any argument from *necessity* fails immediately and simply. If Mary's human nature had to be sinless so that Jesus' human nature could be sinless, why didn't Mary's parents also have to have sinless natures, etc.

If God could create a sinless human nature for Mary without doing so for Joachim and Anna, then he could have created a sinless human nature for Jesus without doing so for Mary.

The argument for the IC is from fittingness, and backwards from the commandment "Honor thy father and thy mother", not from any constructed "necessity" that God had to circumvent anyway. God isn't bound by "necessities" or "rules" except insofar as he chooses to bind himself.

37 posted on 07/29/2013 8:35:16 AM PDT by Campion ("Social justice" begins in the womb)
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To: Gamecock

The sin nature is passed from the fathers to the children (Romans), presumably in the act of conception. Since Jesus was conceived without normal sexual relations ... the sin nature was not passed to him from a human father ... and He could be born of a human woman without the sin nature.


38 posted on 07/29/2013 8:35:23 AM PDT by dartuser
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To: stonehouse01
The fact that Mary is full of grace is in the bible. Jesus required an immaculate (sinless) vessel for his Divine Nature. Mary required a savior - she was “saved” in advance so her vessel was pure - she is prefigured by the ark of the covenant in the OT.

The state of being full of grace = having been saved.

That is ridiculous on its face. Jesus is the only sinless one born (technically Adam and Eve weren't born) to claim otherwise is to deny that all have sinned (Romans 3:23) — so you are obviously rejecting scriptural truth & authority [of Romans] by claiming Mary is without sin, are you not?

39 posted on 07/29/2013 8:35:34 AM PDT by OneWingedShark (Q: Why am I here? A: To do Justly, to love mercy, and to walk humbly with my God.)
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To: Alex Murphy; Biggirl; Gamecock
We don't know the "how" but we know the "why": because she was to be Kecharitomene.

This I know.

For the Bible tells me so.

40 posted on 07/29/2013 8:36:48 AM PDT by Mrs. Don-o (Behold the Cross of the Lord! Flee, hostile powers! The Lion of the Tribe of Judah has conquered!)
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To: Gamecock

The scriptures repeatedly speak of the sins/iniquities of the father being passed on to the children, but I don’t remember reading that the sins/iniquities of the mother being passed on. Paul says Eve was deceived but Adam sinned.

2Cr 11:3 But I fear, lest by any means, as the serpent beguiled Eve through his subtilty, so your minds should be corrupted from the simplicity that is in Christ.

Rom 5:14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam’s transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.


41 posted on 07/29/2013 8:37:27 AM PDT by blue-duncan
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To: All

The idea of Immaculate Conception (of Mary) is non-Biblical and in conflict with the Scriptures (All have sinned and come short . . ). IF God could make Mary sinless in her birth - why not everyone else? Why did Jesus have to come to die for our sins IF God could make us all sinless at birth? The answer is that He cannot. He cannot and be true to His Way and Laws. We have sinned (through Adam)and that requires a blood sacrifice from an unblemished Lamb. The Mary adoration from “Brand X” is also un-Bilical and is a diversion from Jesus.


42 posted on 07/29/2013 8:37:55 AM PDT by BipolarBob
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To: Gamecock

For those who believe no explanation is necessary. For those who don’t believe no explanation is possible. I believe God is the second person of the God Trinity and his mother was without sin.


43 posted on 07/29/2013 8:38:12 AM PDT by ex-snook (God is Love)
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To: Biggirl; All

So .. Mary’s sins were “spiritual” - So were the sins of every other human being on the earth. Adam and Eve - after eating of the apple - DIED SPIRITUALLY. Therefore, Mary was not sinless (because no human born after the fall of Adam and Eve could be sinless) - it’s that simple.

Mary was pure in the sense that she had never been with a man .. because if she had, no blood would have been shed (by way of the breaking of the hyman). That act, of a husband and wife, is considered a covenant of marriage. Mary’s virginity was important for that reason; God was making a covenant with humanity .. plus, Mary not only believed in God, she loved and trusted Him.


44 posted on 07/29/2013 8:38:27 AM PDT by CyberAnt (AMERICA: "... I'm terrified it's slipping away")
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To: Gamecock

I put these sorts of questions in my basket of questions I hope to ask God one day. I have a hard enough time working on not sinning so much myself that I try to spend little or no time dealing with the sins of others...


45 posted on 07/29/2013 8:41:14 AM PDT by NCLaw441
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To: massgopguy

As was St. Anne born sinless, to carry the sinless Mary. And Anne’s mother was ALSO sinless, to carry Anne’s sinlessness, as was HER mother before her, and her mother before her, and on down the line to the very beginning, when all of Mary’s female ancestors were born without sin to carry each of their successive sinless mothers, to carry THEIR successive sinless mothers, until Mary.

They didn’t even need Jesus’ redemption, since only SOME of the human race was born sinless!

That’s where that foolish logic leads.

Ed


46 posted on 07/29/2013 8:41:19 AM PDT by Sir_Ed
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To: BipolarBob

The Church teaches explicitly that Mary’s sinlessness is in view of the merits of Christ, not apart from it, so your objection falls apart.


47 posted on 07/29/2013 8:42:35 AM PDT by Campion ("Social justice" begins in the womb)
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To: Gamecock

The short and true answer is that Mary was selected to be the mother of God before she was born. Her mother St. Anne was blessed by the Holy Spirit in order than the birth of the Blessed Virgin Mary be immaculate. Hence the immaculate conception.

Unfortunately many Catholics believe that the immaculate conception has to do with the birth of Jesus Christ.


48 posted on 07/29/2013 8:43:58 AM PDT by IbJensen (Liberals are like Slinkies, good for nothing, but you smile as you push them down the stairs.)
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To: stonehouse01

The physical body (one’s members/the flesh) is not made sinless the moment one receives God’s gift of salvation through Christ. The believer is still capable of sin. Sin is the result of the “old nature” and those sins come about by the actions of the flesh (the physical/mental/emotional state of the believer). Paul, in Romans 7 bewails this fact, “Who can deliver me from the body of this death?”

The one who accepts Christ as Savior is delivered from the penalty of sin (”There is, therefore, no condemnation to them that believe...”, from the power of sin (it can no longer render the believer [eternally] dead), but we are not delivered from the presence of sin (our full salvation) until the day we are “ever with the Lord” in eternity.

Christ, and Christ alone, is the only One ever referred to in Scripture as being “full of grace [and truth]” - John 1:14.


49 posted on 07/29/2013 8:44:23 AM PDT by MarDav
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To: Sir_Ed

bump for later digestion


50 posted on 07/29/2013 8:45:00 AM PDT by knarf (I say things that are true ... I have no proof ... but they're true)
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