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1 posted on 07/29/2013 7:55:48 AM PDT by Gamecock
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To: Gamecock

Because she was full of grace.


2 posted on 07/29/2013 7:56:32 AM PDT by Biggirl (“Go, do not be afraid, and serve”-Pope Francis)
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To: Alex Murphy; Greetings_Puny_Humans; metmom

A wonderful read void of any of the hocus-pocus found in Brand-X.


3 posted on 07/29/2013 7:57:28 AM PDT by Gamecock (Member: NAACAC)
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To: Gamecock

or was Jesus the son of a Roman soldier ?


5 posted on 07/29/2013 7:59:46 AM PDT by molson209
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To: Gamecock

I do disagree with you.


6 posted on 07/29/2013 8:00:15 AM PDT by Biggirl (“Go, do not be afraid, and serve”-Pope Francis)
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To: Gamecock
The Immaculate Conception
9 posted on 07/29/2013 8:02:08 AM PDT by FroggyTheGremlim (Palin was right (again)!)
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To: Gamecock
if we teach that Jesus was sinless because he did not have a human father

Jesus is sinless because he is God. Not having a human father has nothing to do with it. "Brand Y" is confused, muddled, and dabbling with heterodox Christology, as usual.

12 posted on 07/29/2013 8:04:21 AM PDT by Campion ("Social justice" begins in the womb)
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To: Gamecock

Thus the Catholic concept of “Immaculate Conception”.

(often misconstrued as meaning Mary conceived without having relations with a man, actually refers to the fact that she herself was conceived without sin)


15 posted on 07/29/2013 8:09:56 AM PDT by Buckeye McFrog
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To: Gamecock

This is a great way to spend time

Talking about things we CAN’T POSSIBLY KNOW as if it makes a difference


16 posted on 07/29/2013 8:11:10 AM PDT by Mr. K (4 election)
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To: Gamecock
Why wasn't Mary's sin passed on to Jesus?

what is Immaculate Conception for $300, Alex

I hate when people over think things

19 posted on 07/29/2013 8:12:48 AM PDT by Revelation 911 (hump scratching n'er do well.....all strung out on chicken wings and venison jerky)
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To: Gamecock
God does not specify in greater detail than this how the conception of Jesus by-passed Mary’s own sinfulness to preserve Christ’s sinlessness

So, from the Reformed perspective, there is no explanation.

It just is.

20 posted on 07/29/2013 8:13:11 AM PDT by wideawake
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To: Gamecock
I hope this is of some help.

It's not, really, since it fails to answer the question. The question was "Why wasn't Mary's sin passed on to Jesus?"

While this exposition of scripture accurately reflects basic christian doctrine, it would be wholly unsatisfactory an answer to any non-christian.

The only answer to the question one can draw from this is "because it wasn't."

21 posted on 07/29/2013 8:13:30 AM PDT by trad_anglican
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To: Gamecock

It’s still BREATHTAKING!


22 posted on 07/29/2013 8:14:01 AM PDT by bandleader
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To: Gamecock
Perhaps God, in His infinite wisdom, who gave His Son Jesus Christ two natures, a divine nature and a human nature ... solved this important question with the Immaculate Conception.
24 posted on 07/29/2013 8:17:46 AM PDT by Servant of the Cross (the Truth will set you free)
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To: Gamecock

The sin nature is passed from the fathers to the children (Romans), presumably in the act of conception. Since Jesus was conceived without normal sexual relations ... the sin nature was not passed to him from a human father ... and He could be born of a human woman without the sin nature.


38 posted on 07/29/2013 8:35:23 AM PDT by dartuser
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To: Gamecock

The scriptures repeatedly speak of the sins/iniquities of the father being passed on to the children, but I don’t remember reading that the sins/iniquities of the mother being passed on. Paul says Eve was deceived but Adam sinned.

2Cr 11:3 But I fear, lest by any means, as the serpent beguiled Eve through his subtilty, so your minds should be corrupted from the simplicity that is in Christ.

Rom 5:14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam’s transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.


41 posted on 07/29/2013 8:37:27 AM PDT by blue-duncan
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To: Gamecock

For those who believe no explanation is necessary. For those who don’t believe no explanation is possible. I believe God is the second person of the God Trinity and his mother was without sin.


43 posted on 07/29/2013 8:38:12 AM PDT by ex-snook (God is Love)
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To: Gamecock

I put these sorts of questions in my basket of questions I hope to ask God one day. I have a hard enough time working on not sinning so much myself that I try to spend little or no time dealing with the sins of others...


45 posted on 07/29/2013 8:41:14 AM PDT by NCLaw441
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To: Gamecock

The short and true answer is that Mary was selected to be the mother of God before she was born. Her mother St. Anne was blessed by the Holy Spirit in order than the birth of the Blessed Virgin Mary be immaculate. Hence the immaculate conception.

Unfortunately many Catholics believe that the immaculate conception has to do with the birth of Jesus Christ.


48 posted on 07/29/2013 8:43:58 AM PDT by IbJensen (Liberals are like Slinkies, good for nothing, but you smile as you push them down the stairs.)
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To: Gamecock

A protestant pastor with a rigorous system of theology, the late Robert Thieme, theorized that the sin nature is passed only by the father to the offspring. I can buy this part of his theology, but little else.


57 posted on 07/29/2013 8:57:30 AM PDT by fwdude ( You cannot compromise with that which you must defeat.)
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To: Gamecock

Hard to explain in the days of womens “rights” but Man bears the responsibility, not his woman. Sin is passed down by the seed of man, not woman.

Yes its a loophole in the law, but then God wrote the book on it.

That is why the virgin birth was such and issue, and why Mary did not need to be sinless to have a sinless child.

She may have been the greatest of women in the world, but she still had sin in her flesh from her father. But due to the Grace of God, that turned out to not be an issue.


59 posted on 07/29/2013 9:03:06 AM PDT by American in Israel (A wise man's heart directs him to the right, but the foolish mans heart directs him toward the left.)
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