If there’s no such thing as “Apostolic Succession,” and no “Catholic Church” before 300 A.D., why are there “bishops” (the Apostolic and sub-Apostolic Fathers) writing in the Second Century?
You’re attributing to the catholics the term “bishops,” when the catholic church did not even exist when the Scriptures were written. “Bishop” does not belong to, nor was it originated by, the catholics.