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To: WXRGina

If there’s no such thing as “Apostolic Succession,” and no “Catholic Church” before 300 A.D., why are there “bishops” (the Apostolic and sub-Apostolic Fathers) writing in the Second Century?


23 posted on 09/25/2013 8:57:28 PM PDT by Arthur McGowan (If you're FOR sticking scissors in a female's neck and sucking out her brains, you are PRO-WOMAN!)
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To: Arthur McGowan

You’re attributing to the catholics the term “bishops,” when the catholic church did not even exist when the Scriptures were written. “Bishop” does not belong to, nor was it originated by, the catholics.


29 posted on 09/25/2013 9:02:54 PM PDT by WXRGina (The Founding Fathers would be shooting by now.)
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