Posted on 11/12/2021 4:04:53 AM PST by The Ignorant Fisherman
Amen
Bookmarked for later and bump
🔝🔝🙏🙏🙏✝️✝️✝️🛐🛐🛐🆙🆙🆙
The New Testament chapters were divinely inspired. Their being included in the New Testament is a human judgement - the Council of Laodicea. Revelations is written by John for Jews. It seems that little within it would be considered in any way Pauline.
Amen.
Yes
Sadly, today’s evangelical, A-Mil, reformed covenant crowd are less critical of those who say that the AD 70 destruction of the Temple (by the Roman Army) was the sign of the second Advent of Christ than they are of those who believe that Biblical prophecy should be an exact, literal description of future events, of which many, for that reason, are yet still future.
I have thus concluded that many who are, or who claim to be of the body of Christ based on promises in Scripture don’t really believe all of the Scriptures, rather only those parts that they think make themselves look smart. To think otherwise is to deny Luke 18:8 “I tell you that He will avenge them speedily. Nevertheless, when the Son of Man comes, will He really find faith on the earth?”
Jesus said it “For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled. Matt 5:18
Key word “all”
I tend to think that the focus of the Prince of Darkness with regard to the tribulation temple will be to squash the Jews (and some gentiles) which will then be at long last getting back to the actual words of Scripture and application of same and not so much to hamper participation in temple rituals. Satan knows what many Christians today don’t either know or believe, that rituals, in themselves, don’t save.
It is well said that to today’s evangelicals, by calling someone a “fundamentalist” as a form of name calling, ignores the fact that what we consider a fundamentalist today would have been classified a regular Christian 150 years ago.
“Revelations is written by John for Jews” ????
Where is this stated and where is its exclusivity declared?
So what happens during the Tribulation and the end of Time has nothing to do with anyone but Jews????? Um, No. Or, John is only telling Jews this?? No.
” little within it would be considered in any way Pauline.” - what does this have to do with ANYTHING posted above? Non-sequitur.
I thought that stone piece in the UN chapel was just that, accordingg to various youtubers?
The New Testament is what it is because the early Christian church considered it inspired and apostolic. Nobody who canonized thought it was addressed to anyone except the Christian church. In fact, one of the principle arguments in favor of canonization was "this book is read in our churches during the liturgy".
If you mean it was addressed to Jewish Christians, okay. I'm not convinced of that, but okay.
Hardly a non-sequitur. Paul was appointed apostle to the Gentiles by Christ himself. He brought the word of the Triune God to them. John, as I stated, in both his Chapter and Revelation was writing to the Jewish community.
There are two aspects to Christianity. (1) The Old Testament/The first four books of the Gospel,the first part of Acts which are all devoted and directed to the Jewish Community. (2) The latter part of Acts, the Paullne epistles, and the latter epistles of Pete, which form the basis of the Christian religion in the Gentile world. John was addressing the former, not the latter in his Revelation.
Pauline.” - what does this have to do with ANYTHING
/\
Well,,, cuz preterists don’t care for Paul.
(Preterist definition is - one who holds that the prophecies in the Bible about the End Times have already been fulfilled.)
Anytime you see the term “ pauline” ignore those who use it imho.
Rev 1:4 - John to the seven
churches
which are in Asia: Grace be unto you, and peace, from him which is, and which was, and which is to come; and from the seven Spirits which are before his throne;
Seems pretty clear that John
was
, at least,
writing to Christians
as well as Jews
since Jews don’t have “ churches”.
That’s true, John was given it not Pual, even though Paul talked about this time, John’s at the end of the Apostle tome of written Revelation.
Rev. 1:1-5
Uh...it’s “Revelation”....not plural.
Sounds like Marcionism to me. Which “Jewish Community” do you mean? Paul himself said that wall between believing Jews and believing Gentiles is broken down in Christ. Do you want to rebuild it?
Marcionism: “the doctrinal system of a sect of the second and third centuries a.d. accepting some parts of the New Testament but denying Christ’s corporality and humanity and condemning the Creator God of the Old Testament.” I am in agreement with none of the above. Nice try, keep trying.
Sorry - I’m confused. Let me re-ask so you understand why I’m asking - I see nothing in above OP about Pauline or not, Jews vs. Gentiles. I don’t read Revelation (of Jesus Christ) and say it doesn’t apply to me a Gentile or the entire world during the time prophesied.
So why did you make your point? is what I’m asking.
Jesus said it “For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled. Matt 5:18
You say the key word is ‘all’.
I say it is the word ‘law’. Christ was the Messiah, the fulfillment of the law, and he was rejected by both the Jewish Sanhedrin and the Roman ruler. Paul revives Christianity by assuring Gentiles that Jewish law (circumcision, etc.,) is not relevant to them, but the love of Jesus is.
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