First of all, prove your premise.
Secondly, what's this "our children" stuff? Gay sex produces no children. Gays can only have kids the way their sex organs were biologically formed to perform -- heterosexually.
Even if your premise were true -- and you haven't proven it -- same-sex molestation is still homosexuality to the victim. The resulting trauma would be a homosexuality issue and no doubt confuse the person as to their own so-called sexual orientation (disorientation more like). If this person goes on to become a perp, who's to really say what their "orientation" is? That's a case for gay therapy.
It amazes me how gays seem to feel they are some kind of collective psychics and can say who is and is not oriented their way. If you were going to say a child molester is not gay then why can you say they are heterosexual? If you do not want a same-sex molester in your orientation column, what gives you the right to put them in mine? If it truely had nothing to do with sex, as you say, then would the perp belong in either category?
Logic says that they should belong either in the category that matches the act -- homosexuality -- or in no sexual category at all. You cannot call a man who molests boys a heterosexual. There is nothing heterosexual about it.