Then, and this is not criticism this is seeking answers, why then is the ozone hole in one location rather than all over? Wouldn't it conclude then that there's more involved than man-made pollution? If there were holes directly over industrialized areas, or even over areas near industrialized areas, I would be totally convinced, but I don't understand how with wind patterns and etc.(and trust me I'm no expert on the subject) would create the hole in the ozone layer over in the southern hemisphere. So I guess what I'm saying is, how can everything you say be truthful and everything he says (Rush) false, when neither side can truly account for how it happens...Perhaps thats what science needs to study first, then tell us what we need to do.
That is a good question. The reason is that the ozone destroying reaction occurs not in the gas phase, but on the surfaces of ice crystals in the stratosphere, so called 'polar stratospheric clouds'. The stratosphere at lower latitudes does not have these clouds, and so has no surfaces on which the chlorine can absorb and enhance the reaction.
Catalysis on surfaces is as familiar as the catalytic converter in your car.