Posted on 08/25/2006 7:47:48 PM PDT by Alex Murphy
The words "Separation of Church and State" can not be found in our Constitution. That phrases simplifices - and incorrectly states - what the Founding Fathers intended.
They intended freedom OF religion, not freedom FROM religion. One merely needs to look at what they said to know this - several examples are listed below.
John Adams said:
"Our Constitution was made only for a moral and religious people. It is wholly inadequate to the government ofany other."
Noah Webster said:
"In my view, the Christian religion is the most important and one of the first things in which all children, under a free government ought to be instructed....No truth is more evident to my mind than that the Christian religion must be the basis of any government intended to secure the rights and privileges of a free people."
Abigail Adams said:
"A patriot without religion in my estimation is as great a paradox as an honest Man without the fear of God. Is it possible that he whom no moral obligations bind, can have any real Good Will towards Men?"
Benjamin Franklin:
"A Bible and a newspaper in every house, a good school in every district--all studied and appreciated as they merit--are the principal support of virtue, morality, and civil liberty."
Thomas Jefferson:
"The only foundation for useful education in a republic is to be laid in religion."
The common law was "made up"? Fascinating.
The common law of California included elements of the Spanish alcalde.
Short term memory loss?
"In 1777 most states passed Test Acts. They required everyone to take an oath of allegiance promising to defend the revolutionary cause with arms. Pennsylvania law decreed banishment and confiscation of all property for those who refused the oath."
They know. They don't care.
Precedents, standards and customs evolved over time.
Your position that it was "made up" and then fixed for all places for all time is the sort of ignorance Justice Story addressed when he noted that the common law was not "a brooding omnipresence in the sky".
Correction: Justice Hand, not Justice Story.
Elsie (courtesy ping) is the one who told me that rudeness isn't immoral. So did RobbyS (cp). If you want to say they aren't real CHristians, they'll show you the Bible verses to back them up.
OTOH can a non-Christian really determine what's good Christian behavior and what's not?
Yeah, I've read the Bible. I've been a Christian.
You mean like a community of liberals whose morality gives you a phlanderous, godless blah blah blah.
No, the community of conservatives who elected the person. How come those community standards you claim are standard aren't the ones mentioned when it comes to zoning sex clubs?
Either you support and champion biblical morality in our elected officials upon which our system of government was founded and works best under, or be prepared to watch and say goodbye to the Constitution and the country the way it was intended, with all the glorious freedoms that resulted from it.
You are deluding yourself if you beleve only Bible-believers are constitutionalists. I don't mind electing Christians to office, but I will never refuse to vote for a non-Christian.
Keep naming famous judges and you will get the correct one who wrote that quote.
The point is, is that the words of the statutes are king, and the words of the Constitution trump all. When judges are activist, if there is "ambiguity" in the words in a particular factual context, then the courts "refine" the meaning of the statutory and Constitutional words. But where statutes are silent, as in much of the lacunae of contractual law, for example, prior judicial precedents really matter, and legal practioners rely much more on the case law than the statutes. Without my training to parse case law, I would be largely useless as a legal practioner myself. It is not a simple task often.
As I look forward to seeing your source for claiming the common law was "made up".
Very true. The common law isn't static.
It was made up by courts. In property and contract law, we still refer to some English cases. The statutes have either incorporated such concepts, or remained silent. In some situations, statutes have clearly reversed the common law, such as in absolute legal tort liability, in certain situations. A finding of negligence for example, per the statutes, is no longer necessary, in some factual patterns.
Precedents, standards and customs of the time and place were recognized by the courts.
You began spewing strawmen when it was pointed out that the common law systems of the states reflected their precedents, standards and customs.
When?
When I went to England last month on a legal junket, one Oxford professor noted that the reason English courts were allowed to create published precedents, which were then followed, and became law as it were, was that it was all in "legal French," until the late 18th century, not understood by Parliament, and by the time the action was writen in English, it was too late for Parliament to recoup its lost power, in that regard. The tradition of courts creating legal precedents, with the force of law. had become too ingrained, to reverse. Tradition, tradition! In Civil Law countries, although it is changing now in many Civil Law nations, courts are not allowed to create legal precedent with the force of law, in the sense that subsequent courts must follow such prececents, if lower courts.
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