As I said in my post, the practice of polygamy which had been abandoned for centuries was revived in the Islamic period as a way of fitting in.
No scripture ever states that having more than one wife is a sin.
It's clear that polygamy - like divorce - was a concession made to man's weakness in the preMessianic period, not a sin but not a laudable practice either.
Not only does Jesus describe marriage as being between a man and a woman, but he sets aside divorce as a no-longer-acceptable concession to man's weakness.
The New Testament, whenever it discusses marriage, assumes monogamy as the underlying standard.
Christians have never practiced polygamy and never accepted it as permissible.
For a Christian to permit it or engage in it would be a complete repudiation of the highest historical standards of Christian behavior as practiced from the apostolic age down to this.
>>It's clear that polygamy - like divorce - was a concession made to man's
>>weakness in the preMessianic period, not a sin but not a laudable practice either.
Please cite the scripture where this is stated.
>>Not only does Jesus describe marriage as being between a man and a woman, but
>>he sets aside divorce as a no-longer-acceptable concession to man's weakness.
Yes, the marriage covenant was taken one man and one woman at a time even when one man is marrying more than one woman in total. (I guess also when one woman is marrying more than one man, but that’s a little out of scope for this discussion.)
>>The New Testament, whenever it discusses marriage, assumes monogamy as the underlying standard.
The underlying standard, yes, the only righteous one? That is an assumption that cannot be proved with the current scriptures, and gets even less likely as one goes back to the original language.
>>Christians have never practiced polygamy and never accepted it as permissible.
This is not true.
>>For a Christian to permit it or engage in it would be a complete repudiation of the highest historical standards of Christian behavior as practiced from the apostolic age down to this.
Let’s have some fun with this, shall we?
So, why are nuns referred to as Brides of Christ?
How many wives does Jesus get to have? (or get stuck with depending on your point of view)
Why are priests celibate? (I know a great joke about the missing “R”, but not now)
Why was it OK for a mountain man to marry a white woman, and several Indian squas?
Why was monogamy only adopted after the bulk of Christians were no longer of the tribes of Israel?
Why is there no scripture that clearly states “Polygamy Bad” as there are with so many other things?
Why did many of the patriarchs of the Old Testament have more than one wife?
Why was it accepted?
These patriarchs were obedient in so many things to assume that they were law breakers in this one is inconsistent.
Is it the Bible that is saying this, or are is the Bible being interpreted?
Please understand that I am doing this mostly for fun, but also because I believe your position is illogical and not in agreement with the Bible as written.
I believe the case for Monogamy being “the norm” that is expected can be made from the Bible, I believe that polygamy is also an acceptable variant of marriage to God. I believe God is more concerned about how we treat our wives (or wife) and Children than how many of them there are. I believe God also cares more that we stay within the bounds of Matrimony than how many wives we commit to. But this is just my opinion; see I know the difference between my opinion and fact.
I believe that man who lives in harmony, respect and love with more than one wife is closer to heaven than a man who lives with only one and beats and curses her.
I intend to live in peace, harmony and love with my one wife, and that is good enough for me.