Maybe I'm just getting pretty tired or something but I've read this post twice and I still don't understand what's being said.
For one thing, I couldn't find a question. The above quotes phrase -- the closest I could find to a question --isn't, it's a statement. (FWIW: the Muslims consider Christians polytheic, i.e. Father-Son-Holy-Ghost, Mariology (sp?), prayers to various saints, etc.)
And the phrase "Before Jesus, was monotheism. Is that a typo (of which I know all about from personal experience) or a statement? If the latter what does it mean?
Let me give you the short form of the guy's thesis:
Mohamed was a perverted psychopath not a god. Yet throughout history perverts and psychopaths have been able to sway a lot of people.
I think it is about whether God is intercessory. Of course, it might be about whether God created evil or just knew that we would do that eventually if not sooner.